Human Resources (HR)

An HR (Human Resources) Internship is a structured training opportunity for students, fresh graduates, or career switchers to gain hands-on experience in Human Resources management. Interns assist the HR department in areas like recruitment, onboarding, payroll, employee engagement, compliance, and HR operations.

It helps interns understand how HR contributes to employee management, workplace culture, and organizational growth.

Objectives of an HR Internship

Gain exposure to recruitment and talent acquisition.
Understand HR policies, compliance, and labor laws.
Learn about employee engagement, performance management, and payroll.
Develop communication and interpersonal skills.
Get familiar with HR tools (HRMS, ATS, LinkedIn Recruiter, Excel).

Skills You’ll Develop

Recruitment & Screening – shortlisting CVs, scheduling interviews.
Onboarding & Documentation – employee joining formalities.
HR Operations – maintaining records, attendance, leave management.
Payroll Assistance – salary processing basics.
Compliance & Policies – labor laws, HR policies.
Employee Engagement – events, surveys, feedback collection.
Soft Skills – communication, problem-solving, time management.

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D1

1 / 45

1) Which of the following is a strategic objective of HRM?

a) Control raw material cost

b) Align people with organizational goals

c) Increase stock prices

d) Reduce taxes

2 / 45

2) One of the primary functions of HRM is:

a) Sales Promotion

b) Recruitment and Selection

c) Production Planning

d) Advertising

3 / 45

3) Which model of HRM emphasizes employee commitment as a key factor?

a) Fayol’s Model

b) Mayo’s Model

c) Harvard Model

d) Taylor’s Model

4 / 45

4) The HR role in performance management is to:

a) Manufacture new machines

b) Improve customer loyalty

c) Evaluate and guide employee performance

d) Conduct advertising campaigns

5 / 45

5) Which of these objectives of HRM focuses on society?

a) Employee career development

b) Legal compliance and social responsibility

c) Productivity growth

d) Employer–employee harmony

6 / 45

6) Which of the following comes under HRM roles?

a) Product Pricing

b) Employee Welfare

c) Market Expansion

d) Financial Planning

7 / 45

7) Which function of HRM ensures that the right number of people are available at the right time?

a) Performance Appraisal

b) Training

c) Motivation

d) HR Planning

8 / 45

8) The “strategic role” of HRM includes:

a) Record keeping

b) Daily attendance

c) Advertising products

d) Supporting long-term business goals

9 / 45

9) Which one is a managerial function of HRM?

a) Training

b) Compensation

c) Recruitment

d) Organizing workforce

10 / 45

10) HRM is considered as a __________ function of management.

a) Managerial

b) Operational

c) Financial

d) Strategic

11 / 45

11) The function of Industrial Relations within HRM deals with:

a) Labor unions and negotiations

b) Advertising

c) Raw materials

d) Customer grievances

12 / 45

12) Compensation management deals with:

a) Reducing cost of machines

b) Employee pay and benefits

c) Training customers

d) Designing products

13 / 45

13) Succession planning is directly related to:

a) Training customers

b) Hiring temporary staff

c) Preparing future leaders

d) Reducing workforce

14 / 45

14) One important objective of HRM is:

a) To reduce product quality

b) To improve customer sales

c) To increase machine hours

d) To utilize human resources effectively

15 / 45

15) HRM ensures compliance with:

a) Sales targets

b) Labor laws and employment regulations

c) Product design standards

d) Tax laws only

16 / 45

16) The ultimate aim of HRM is to:

a) Focus only on profit

b) Increase machine utilization

c) Ensure effective use of human talent for organizational goals

d) Reduce employee welfare

17 / 45

17) Which of the following is a function of HRM?

a) Selling goods

b) Marketing products

c) Designing machines

d) Recruiting staff

18 / 45

18) The process of hiring the right person for the right job is called:

a) Development

b) Retrenchment

c) Promotion

d) Recruitment

19 / 45

19) The HRM function that ensures employees are continuously updated with new skills is:

a) Grievance Handling

b) Training and Development

c) Compensation

d) Employee Relations

20 / 45

20) Which one of the following is a developmental function of HRM?

a) Training and development

b) Recruitment

c) Payroll processing

d) Record maintenance

21 / 45

21) One of the measurable objectives of HRM is:

a) Cut training

b) Reduce employee satisfaction

c) Increase employee turnover

d) Improve employee productivity

22 / 45

22) Strategic HRM links human resource practices with:

a) Machinery

b) Company’s overall business strategy

c) Only payroll functions

d) Product design

23 / 45

23) Which HRM function ensures fair pay compared to the industry standard?

a) Job Design

b) Compensation Management

c) Employee Relations

d) Training

24 / 45

24) Modern HRM differs from traditional Personnel Management mainly because it:

a) Ignores training

b) Is purely administrative

c) Is strategic and employee-centric

d) Focuses only on payroll

25 / 45

25) Which of the following is NOT a function of HRM?

a) Selling productsv

b) Recruitment

c) Employee welfare

d) Training employees

26 / 45

26) Which of the following is an example of an operational HR function?

a) Aligning HR with strategy

b) Long-term HR planning

c) Policy formulation

d) Employee record management

27 / 45

27) Human Resource Management (HRM) is mainly concerned with:

a) Managing machines

b) Managing money

c) Managing people

d) Managing technology

28 / 45

28) HRM deals with __________.

a) Land

b) Labor

c) Machines

d) Materials

29 / 45

29) he main focus of HRM is on

a) Employee management

b) Machinery

c) Market research

d) Product development

30 / 45

30) Job analysis is the process of:

a) Identifying job requirements and skills needed

b) Promoting employees

c) Marketing

d) Selling goods

31 / 45

31) An important objective of HRM is employee motivation because:

a) It decreases training needs

b) It reduces product costv

c) Motivated employees work efficiently

d) It increases machine productivity

32 / 45

32) The HRM role of being a “Change Agent” means:

a) Selling new products

b) Filing records

c) Controlling machine cost

d) Leading organizational transformation

33 / 45

33) A key role of HRM in globalization is:

a) Managing a diverse workforce

b) Designing new machines

c) Selling products abroad

d) Importing goods

34 / 45

34) Which of the following is the correct full form of HRM?

a) Human Resource Management

b) Human Relations Management

c) Human Role Management

d) Human Research Management

35 / 45

35) Which of these is a quantitative measure of HR effectiveness?

a) Employee satisfaction survey

b) Leadership skills

c) Motivation level

d) Absenteeism rate

36 / 45

36) The “soft” approach to HRM emphasizes:

a) Strict control

b) Machinery utilization

c) Employee welfare and motivation

d) Reducing staff strength

37 / 45

37) The function of "providing training and development" belongs to:

a) Finance Department

b) IT Department

c) Production Department

d) HR Department

38 / 45

38) One of the main challenges for HRM in the digital era is:

a) Importing technology

b) Selling digital products

c) Managing e-HRM and remote workforce

d) Payroll only

39 / 45

39) The function of “employee relations” is focused on:

a) Employer–employee harmony

b) Product distribution

c) Pricing strategy

d) Machine maintenance

40 / 45

40) Which of these is NOT an HRM role?

a) Strategic partner

b) Employee champion

c) Administrative expert

d) Machine operator

41 / 45

41) The function of performance appraisal is linked to:

a) Marketing strategy

b) Buying new machines

c) Advertising

d) Evaluating employee work

42 / 45

42) The administrative role of HR is mainly concerned with:

a) Marketing products

b) Long-term planning

c) Training suppliers

d) Record keeping and compliance

43 / 45

43) Which of the following is NOT an objective of HRM?

a) Maximizing profit only

b) Employee training

c) Employee development

d) Employee satisfaction

44 / 45

44) The role of HRM in an organization is mainly:

a) To increase machine efficiency

b) To handle only salaries

c) To manage people and their performance

d) To produce goods

45 / 45

45) Who is considered the “Father of Personnel Management”?

a) Peter Drucker

b) Henry Fayol

c) Elton Mayo

d) F.W. Taylor

Your score is

The average score is 90%

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D2

1 / 45

1) The role of HR in recruitment is:

a) To sell services

b) To plan, attract and hire people

c) To manage machines

d) To manufacture goods

2 / 45

2) Which recruitment source saves time and cost?

a) Internal recruitment

b) Job advertisements

c) Employment agencies

d) Campus recruitment

3 / 45

3) Employee referrals are considered as:

a) Internal source of recruitment

b) External source of recruitment

c) None

d) Outsourcing

4 / 45

4) Workforce forecasting in recruitment involves:

a) Increasing machine output

b) Improving products

c) Reducing workforce size

d) Predicting future manpower needs

5 / 45

5) Strategic recruitment aims at:

a) Aligning hiring with long-term business goals

b) Hiring temporary workers only

c) Quick hiring only

d) Reducing salaries

6 / 45

6) Manpower planning is also called:

a) Machine planning

b) Financial planning

c) Product planning

d) Workforce planning

7 / 45

7) Outsourcing in recruitment means:

a) Conducting internal job posting

b) Hiring through referrals

c) Hiring vendors to provide recruitment services

d) Promoting existing staff

8 / 45

8) Which document is prepared before starting recruitment?

a) Pay slip

b) Performance appraisal

c) Offer letter

d) Job description

9 / 45

9) Internal recruitment refers to:

a) Hiring on contract basis

b) Hiring from within the company

c) Hiring consultants only

d) Hiring from outside the company

10 / 45

10) A key challenge in recruitment is:

a) Increasing machine productivity

b) Finding skilled candidates in a competitive market

c) Designing products

d) Expanding marketing area

11 / 45

11) Which of these is an internal source of recruitment?

a) Employee referrals

b) Campus placement

c) Job posting on website

d) Employment exchange

12 / 45

12) The term “headhunting” in recruitment refers to:

a) Hiring senior professionals from outside

b) Referring friends

c) Hiring trainees

d) Promoting internal staff

13 / 45

13) Which of the following is NOT a step in recruitment planning?

a) Planning salary hikes

b) Identifying number of vacancies

c) Defining job requirements

d) Shortlisting candidates

14 / 45

14) Employer branding helps in recruitment by:

a) Reducing machine costs

b) Attracting quality candidates

c) Increasing marketing sales

d) Avoiding promotions

15 / 45

15) Recruitment is the process of:

a) Managing machines

b) Advertising products

c) Attracting and hiring people for jobs

d) Selecting goods for sale

16 / 45

16) Realistic Job Preview (RJP) is used to:

a) Train candidates

b) Hide weaknesses of job

c) Provide honest information about job

d) Reduce hiring cost

17 / 45

17) Campus recruitment is useful for:

a) Hiring fresh graduates

b) Promoting senior employees

c) Transferring staff

d) Hiring unskilled workers

18 / 45

18) Which of the following is NOT a source of external recruitment?

a) Campus interviews

b) Promotion

c) Job fairs

d) Employment agencies

19 / 45

19) Advertisement in newspapers for job openings is an example of:

a) External recruitment

b) Internal recruitment

c) Transfer

d) Promotion

20 / 45

20) The main objective of recruitment is:

a) To increase profits only

b) To increase sales

c) To fill job vacancies with suitable candidates

d) To reduce machines’ downtime

21 / 45

21) The purpose of workforce planning in recruitment is:

a) To expand machines

b) To decide number and type of people needed

c) To reduce product cost

d) To increase marketing campaigns

22 / 45

22) Outsourcing in recruitment means:

a) Hiring vendors to provide recruitment services

b) Conducting internal job posting

c) Hiring through referrals

d) Promoting existing staff

23 / 45

23) Which of these is a disadvantage of internal recruitment?

a) Creates motivation among employees

b) Limits fresh talent and new ideas

c) Reduces training cost

d) Improves employee loyalty

24 / 45

24) One of the advanced techniques in recruitment is:

a) Internal job posting only

b) Manual paperwork

c) AI-based candidate screening

d) Word of mouth hiring only

25 / 45

25) Which one is a qualitative aspect of recruitment planning?

a) Time taken to hire

b) Cost per hire

c) Number of people hired

d) Candidate’s attitude and motivation

26 / 45

26) A realistic recruitment policy ensures:

a) Only hiring friends

b) Outsourcing all jobs

c) Hiring the right candidate at the right time

d) Unlimited hiring

27 / 45

27) Which one comes first in recruitment planning?

a) Selecting candidates

b) Conducting appraisal

c) Identifying manpower needs

d) Giving training

28 / 45

28) Which is a drawback of external recruitment?

a) Large pool of candidates

b) Costly and time-consuming

c) Provides diversity

d) Brings new ideas

29 / 45

29) The first step in the recruitment process is:

a) Interview

b) Job analysis

c) Performance appraisal

d) Appointment letter

30 / 45

30) Talent pipeline in recruitment refers to:

a) Outsourcing recruitment

b) A pool of potential candidates for future roles

c) Employee transfers

d) Internal promotions

31 / 45

31) Realistic Job Preview (RJP) is used to:

a) Provide honest information about job

b) Reduce hiring cost

c) Hide weaknesses of job

d) Train candidates

32 / 45

32) The ultimate aim of recruitment is to:

a) Increase machine output

b) Expand markets

c) Fill vacancies with best talent

d) Reduce employee salaries

33 / 45

33) Which of the following is NOT a step of recruitment?

a) Advertising vacancies

b) Selling products

c) Attracting candidates

d) Selecting candidates

34 / 45

34) The final step in the recruitment process is:

a) Training

b) Advertisement

c) Job analysis

d) Selection decision and job offer

35 / 45

35) Recruitment metrics are used to:

a) Measure the effectiveness of recruitment

b) Train employees

c) Manage salaries

d) Advertise vacancies

36 / 45

36) E-recruitment is also known as:

a) Online recruitment

b) Outsourcing

c) Internal recruitment

d) Manual hiring

37 / 45

37) Recruitment is different from selection because recruitment is mainly:

a) Rejecting unsuitable candidates

b) Attracting potential candidates

c) Conducting interviews

d) Training new hires

38 / 45

38) Which step comes immediately after job analysis?

a) Job specification

b) Interviewing

c) Selection

d) Advertising vacancy

39 / 45

39) The process of narrowing down applicants from a pool is called:

a) Forecasting

b) Recruiting

c) Training

d) Screening

40 / 45

40) Which is NOT an objective of recruitment planning?

a) Reducing cost of hiring

b) Matching job requirements with candidates

c) Attracting suitable candidates

d) Increasing product price

41 / 45

41) Which of these agencies help in external recruitment?

a) Government employment exchange

b) Job rotation

c) Internal promotions

d) Employee transfers

42 / 45

42) Which of these is a modern method of recruitment?

a) Newspaper ads

b) Job rotation

c) Employee transfer

d) E-recruitment (online portals)

43 / 45

43) Which one of the following is an example of external recruitment?

a) Job rotation

b) Promotion

c) Campus recruitment

d) Transfer

44 / 45

44) Job specification mainly includes:

a) Employee’s qualifications and skills required

b) Duties and responsibilities of job

c) Company history

d) Salary details

45 / 45

45) The recruitment policy of a company should be aligned with:

a) Product pricing

b) Market competition

c) Competitor’s policies

d) Organizational objectives

Your score is

The average score is 90%

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D3

1 / 45

1) Which LinkedIn feature helps in targeted job ads?

a) LinkedIn Payroll

b) LinkedIn Chat

c) LinkedIn Jobs

d) LinkedIn Stories

2 / 45

2) Which is a disadvantage of job portals?

a) Easy access to candidates

b) Wide reach

c) Too many irrelevant resumes

d) Quick posting

3 / 45

3) Sourcing in recruitment means:

a) Searching for raw materials

b) Conducting training

c) Sending offer letters

d) Attracting and identifying potential job candidates

4 / 45

4) Resume filtering is done to:

a) Edit job descriptions

b) Train employees

c) Remove irrelevant applications

d) Prepare payroll

5 / 45

5) Which of these is NOT a job portal?

a) Monster

b) Glassdoor

c) Indeed

d) YouTube

6 / 45

6) Employee referrals are considered as:

a) Internal sourcing method

b) Resume filtering

c) External sourcing method

d) Screening method

7 / 45

7) Passive candidates are:

a) Not actively looking but open to opportunities

b) Already rejected candidates

c) Candidates without resumes

d) Actively looking for jobs

8 / 45

8) Which sourcing method provides direct access to fresh graduates?

a) Resume filtering

b) Job fairs and campus recruitment

c) Employee referrals

d) Payroll data

9 / 45

9) Which of the following improves candidate quality in sourcing?

a) Strong employer branding

b) Random resume collection

c) Hiring without screening

d) Accuracy

10 / 45

10) The main aim of screening resumes is to:

a) Train new hires

b) Promote existing staff

c) Reject all applicants

d) shortlist the most qualified candidates

11 / 45

11) The final step in sourcing and screening is:

a) Shortlisting for interviews

b) Employee transfer

c) Writing job descriptions

d) Sending payroll details

12 / 45

12) What is the purpose of keyword matching in resume filtering?

a) To calculate salaries

b) To prepare job descriptions

c) to train employees

d) to identify resumes that match job requirements

13 / 45

13) A drawback of resume filtering manually is:

a) Time-consuming and prone to bias

b) Very accurate

c) Cost-effective

d) Fast and error-free

14 / 45

14) Predictive analytics in sourcing is used for:

a) advertising jobs offline

b) Sending payroll slips

c) Forecasting which candidates will perform well

d) Shortlisting internal transfers

15 / 45

15) Which advanced screening technique reduces unconscious bias?

a) Job posting

b) Employee referrals

c) Manual shortlisting

d) Blind resume screening

16 / 45

16) Which LinkedIn tool allows recruiters to send messages directly to non-connections

a) InMail

b) Job Post

c) Direct Chat

d) Email Sync

17 / 45

17) Which of the following is NOT a sourcing technique?

a) Job portals

b) Campus placement

c) LinkedIn search

d) Employee performance appraisal

18 / 45

18) ATS filters resumes based on:

a) Salary expectations only

b) Keywords and job criteria

c) Candidate photos

d) Hobbies only

19 / 45

19) A Boolean search uses symbols such as:

a) $, %, #

b) Copy, Paste

c) Plus, Minus, Equal

d) AND, OR, NOT

20 / 45

20) Which of the following is a modern sourcing technique?

a) Word-of-mouth hiring only

b) AI-powered talent search

c) Newspaper advertisements only

d) Manual resume collection

21 / 45

21) Screening criteria may include:

a) Food habits

b) Favorite movies

c) Personal hobbies only

d) Education, skills, and work experienc

22 / 45

22) A recruiter posts a job on LinkedIn and shares it in relevant groups. This is an example of:

a) Job rotation

b) Internal transfer

c) Social sourcing

d) Resume filtering

23 / 45

23) The process of ranking resumes based on job fit is called:

a) Resume rejection

b) Resume scoring

c) Job analysis

d) candidate pooling

24 / 45

24) Resume databases of job portals are used for:

a) Advertising services

b) Managing company payroll

c) Organizing meetings

d) Storing and retrieving candidate information

25 / 45

25) One key benefit of job portals compared to referrals is:

a) Larger candidate poo

b) Lower competition

c) Only hiring internal staff

d) More personal recommendations

26 / 45

26) Which one is an automated screening tool?

a) Internal transfer

b) Payroll system

c) ATS

d) Job rotation

27 / 45

27) LinkedIn Recruiter tool is designed for:

a) Social media advertising

b) Employee training

c) Payroll processing

d) Finding and contacting potential candidates

28 / 45

28) Which method is best for sourcing niche roles?

a) Mass job portals only

b) Employee rotation

c) LinkedIn networking and headhunting

d) Walk-in interviews

29 / 45

29) Which of the following is an online professional networking site?

a) LinkedIn

b) Twitter

c) Instagram

d) Snapchat

30 / 45

30) Job portals are mainly used for:

a) Sharing photos

b) Buying products

c) Conducting meetings

d) Posting job vacancies and sourcing candidates

31 / 45

31) Which feature of job portals helps recruiters quickly find suitable candidates?

a) Marketing tools

b) Salary slip generation

c) Performance reviews

d) Resume database search

32 / 45

32) A disadvantage of LinkedIn sourcing is:

a) No access to professionals

b) Paid premium features for advanced searches

c) No job posting option

d) Limited professional networking

33 / 45

33) LinkedIn allows recruiters to:

a) Conduct machine maintenance

b) Sell products only

c) Manage payroll

d) Post and promote jobs

34 / 45

34) Which platform provides both job posting and candidate networking?

a) LinkedIn

b) Gmail

c) Dropbox

d) Google Drive

35 / 45

35) Which sourcing method is most cost-effective for startups?

a) International job portals

b) Employee referrals

c) Outsourced agencies

d) Paid LinkedIn Recruiter

36 / 45

36) One of the biggest advantages of LinkedIn sourcing is:

a) Payroll generation

b) Access to passive candidates

c) Product promotion

d) Employee transfer

37 / 45

37) Which metric is used to measure sourcing effectiveness?

a) Source of hire

b) Profit margin

c) Employee turnover

d) Machine downtime

38 / 45

38) A Boolean search on LinkedIn or job portals is used for:

a) Salary calculation

b) Counting employees

c) Filtering resumes using keywords and operators

d) Advertising products

39 / 45

39) An example of a job portal is:

a) WhatsApp

b) Naukri.com

c) LinkedIn

d) Facebook

40 / 45

40) One limitation of job portals is:

a) Easy access to resumes

b) Faster sourcing

c) Large pool of candidates

d) High competition and irrelevant applications

41 / 45

41) Resume screening software that uses AI is often called:

a) ATS (Applicant Tracking System)

b) CRM

c) MIS

d) ERP

42 / 45

42) Screening in recruitment mainly refers to:

a) Filtering and shortlisting suitable candidates

b) Training new employees

c) Conducting exit interviews

d) Advertising job vacancies

43 / 45

43) The ultimate goal of sourcing and screening is:

a) Selecting the most suitable candidates for interviews

b) Increasing job ads only

c) Promoting existing staff

d) Accuracy

44 / 45

44) Resume screening helps HR to:

a) Conduct training programs

b) Identify candidates who meet job requirements

c) Promote existing employees

d) Hire without interviews

45 / 45

45) Which of the following is an internal sourcing method?

a) Employee referrals

b) Job portals

c) Employment agencies

d) LinkedIn ads

Your score is

The average score is 95%

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D4

1 / 45

1) Which of the following is a method to reduce bias in interviews?

a) Relying on gut feeling

b) Using standardized rating scales

c) Focusing on first impressions

d) Asking personal questions

2 / 45

2) Which selection test is often used along with interviews?

a) Psychometric test

b) Aptitude test

c) Technical test

d) All of the above

3 / 45

3) The main objective of an interview in recruitment is:

a) To advertise the company

b) To prepare payroll

c) To entertain candidates

d) To assess candidate’s suitability for a job

4 / 45

4) Which of the following is NOT a type of interview?

a) Panel interview

b) Walk-in interview

c) Machine interview

d) Stress interview

5 / 45

5) A structured interview is characterized by:

a) Informal chatting only

b) No preparation at all

c) Using pre-determined, consistent questions for all candidates

d) Asking different random questions to each candidate

6 / 45

6) Which of these can cause bias in interviews?

a) Panel discussions

b) Personal judgments of the interviewer

c) Standard evaluation forms

d) Using structured questions

7 / 45

7) Which interview is conducted online using video conferencing?

a) Stress interview

b) Group interview

c) Walk-in interview

d) Virtual interview

8 / 45

8) Which of the following is a step in the selection process?

a) Preliminary interview

b) Background verification

c) Resume shortlisting

d) All of the above

9 / 45

9) The "first impression error" in interviews means:

a) Evaluating consistently

b) Using rating sheets

c) Judging candidate based on initial impression only

d) Following structured format

10 / 45

10) A blind interview process means:

a) Only resumes are checked

b) Interviewers ask no questions

c) Candidate details (like gender, name, background) are hidden to reduce bias

d) Candidate closes their eyes

11 / 45

11) A major limitation of panel interviews is:

a) Reduced bias

b) Multiple perspectives

c) Objectivity

d) Time-consuming and intimidating

12 / 45

12) A behavioral interview is designed to:

a) Test physical strength

b) Assess past experiences to predict future behavior

c) Judge fashion style

d) Evaluate hobbies

13 / 45

13) Which interview technique asks candidates to narrate how they handled real situations?

a) Exit interview

b) Behavioral interview

c) Stress interview

d) Situational interview

14 / 45

14) Which type of interview saves time by assessing many candidates together?

a) Walk-in interviewv

b) Panel interview

c) Group interview

d) Stress interview

15 / 45

15) Which of these is an evaluation tool after interviews?

a) Payroll register

b) Resume database

c) Job advertisement

d) Candidate rating sheet

16 / 45

16) Which interview is conducted by multiple interviewers together?

a) Telephone interview

b) Stress interview

c) Panel interview

d) Group interview

17 / 45

17) An interviewer focusing only on negative aspects of a candidate is showing:

a) Central tendency

b) Horn effect bias

c) Contrast bias

d) Halo effect bias

18 / 45

18) Technical interviews are mostly used in:

a) Sales promotions

b) HR exit processes

c) payroll management

d) IT, engineering, and specialized roles

19 / 45

19) Which type of interview focuses on technical knowledge and problem-solving?

a) Exit interview

b) Stress interview

c) Group interview

d) Technical interview

20 / 45

20) A group interview involves:

a) Multiple candidates interviewed together

b) Candidate meeting HR only

c) Candidate interviewing the employer

d) One interviewer and one candidate

21 / 45

21) The ultimate aim of interview and selection techniques is:

a) To reject maximum applicants

b) To reduce salary costs

c) To hire the best-fit candidate fairly and effectively

d) To promote existing employees

22 / 45

22) Telephonic interviews are usually conducted for:

a) Initial screening of candidates

b) Salary payments

c) Final hiring decision

d) performance appraisals

23 / 45

23) Which advanced technique helps in evaluating candidates through recorded responses?

a) Exit interviews

b) Manual note-taking

c) Video interviews with AI analysis

d) Telephone calls only

24 / 45

24) One major purpose of interview evaluation is:

a) To reduce job vacancies

b) To avoid training

c) To compare candidates fairly

d) To reject all candidates

25 / 45

25) A situational interview is different from behavioral because:

a) Situational = group, Behavioral = panel

b) Situational = future response, Behavioral = past behavior

c) Situational = casual talk, Behavioral = serious talk

d) Situational = only HR round, Behavioral = technical round

26 / 45

26) Which interview type checks how candidates would react in future job situations?

a) Hypothetical or situational interview

b) Stress interview

c) Exit interview

d) Panel interview

27 / 45

27) Which interview is least structured and more like a casual talk?

a) Group interview

b) Structured interview

c) Informal interview

d) Panel interview

28 / 45

28) The purpose of combining interviews with tests and reference checks is to:

a) Replace interviews completely

b) Reduce subjectivity and increase accuracy in selection

c) Increase cost only

d) Delay hiring

29 / 45

29) Interview scoring rubrics are useful because:

a) They encourage bias

b) They increase casual discussions

c) They standardize candidate evaluation

d) They replace interviews fully

30 / 45

30) One limitation of interviews as a selection tool is:

a) Possible bias and subjectivity

b) Flexible questioning

c) Evaluating communication skills

d) Personal interaction with candidates

31 / 45

31) Which type of interview is used to evaluate cultural fit in the organization?

a) Exit interview

b) Panel interview

c) Stress interview

d) Cultural fit interview

32 / 45

32) Which of the following helps ensure fairness in interviews?

a) Ignoring scoring

b) Structured evaluation forms

c) Quick judgments

d) Random questioning

33 / 45

33) A stress interview may sometimes be criticized because:

a) It helps identify coping skills

b) It tests resilience

c) It avoids bias

d) It may create negative impressions of the company

34 / 45

34) Which interview type assesses how candidates react under pressure?

a) Technical interview

b) Panel interview

c) Stress interview

d) Exit interview

35 / 45

35) The "halo effect" bias in interviews means:

a) Ignoring personality

b) Judging a candidate positively based on one strong quality

c) Judging based on negative traits

d) Neutral evaluation

36 / 45

36) Selection is different from recruitment because selection involves:

a) Attracting many applicants

b) Choosing the best-fit candidate

c) Advertising jobs

d) Posting vacancies

37 / 45

37) An interviewer rejecting candidates who are similar to them is showing:

a) Similarity bias

b) Central tendency

c) Stereotyping bias

d) Contrast bias

38 / 45

38) Which interview method is most suitable for high-volume hiring?

a) Group interviews

b) Stress interviews

c) Exit interviews

d) Panel interviews

39 / 45

39) One way to minimize interviewer bias is to:

a) Depend only on intuition

b) Ignore job criteria

c) Avoid evaluation sheets

d) Use multiple interviewers (panel)

40 / 45

40) An exit interview is conducted:

a) When hiring new staff

b) Before training programs

c) During promotions

d) At the time of employee resignation

41 / 45

41) Central tendency bias in interviews happens when:

a) No ratings are given

b) Only low scores are given

c) All candidates are rated average regardless of performance

d) Only high scores are given

42 / 45

42) Which of these is a disadvantage of unstructured interviews?

a) Easy to compare candidates

b) Very consistent

c) Objective evaluation

d) Highly biased and less reliable

43 / 45

43) The STAR technique in interviews is used for:

a) Screening resumes

b) Training employees

c) Salary benchmarking

d) Evaluating behavior through Situation, Task, Action, Result

44 / 45

44) In competency-based interviews, questions are linked to:

a) Random interests

b) Education only

c) Candidate’s family details

d) Specific skills and job competencies

45 / 45

45) Which bias occurs when interviewers compare candidates instead of job standards?

a) Leniency bias

b) Contrast bias

c) Similarity bias

d) Halo effect

Your score is

The average score is 93%

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D5

1 / 44

1) Which HR strategy helps in employee retention?

a) Ignoring employee feedback

b) Overburdening employees

c) Poor pay scale

d) Offering career growth and recognition

2 / 44

2) Which of the following is a limitation of gig workers for companies?

a) Lack of long-term commitment

b) High loyalty

c) Easy replacement

d) Low flexibility

3 / 44

3) Which generation of employees prefers gig and freelance opportunities more?

a) gen Z and Millennials

b) None of these

c) Baby Boomers

d) Silent Generation

4 / 44

4) Which of the following is a reason for high attrition?

a) Recognition and rewards

b) Career growth opportunities

c) Employee training programs

d) Low salary and poor work culture

5 / 44

5) Which law in India deals with prevention of sexual harassment at workplace?

a) Contract Act

b) IT Act, 2000

c) POSH Act, 2013

d) Companies Act, 2013

6 / 44

6) The use of chatbots in recruitment helps in:

a) Writing offer letters

b) Answering candidate queries automatically

c) Deciding final salary

d) Conducting background verification

7 / 44

7) Which technology is used for remote interviews?

a) Loudspeaker

b) Typewriter

c) Fax machine

d) Video conferencing tools like Zoom and MS Teams

8 / 44

8) What is the purpose of predictive analytics in recruitment?

a) Forecasting candidate success and attrition

b) Measuring customer satisfaction

c) Predicting stock market growth

d) Deciding company profits

9 / 44

9) What is moonlighting in HR terms?

a) Working overtime at the same company

b) Retiring early

c) Doing a second job along with a primary one

d) Taking frequent leaves

10 / 44

10) Which of the following is a current trend in hiring?

a) Using Artificial Intelligence (AI) in recruitment

b) Hiring without interviews

c) Only relying on newspapers for job ads

d) Ignoring technology in recruitment

11 / 44

11) Which HR metric measures the rate at which employees leave a company?

a) Productivity index

b) Retention rate

c) Engagement score

d) Attrition rate

12 / 44

12) Which of the following is NOT a factor in attrition?

a) Work-life imbalance

b) Salary dissatisfaction

c) Toxic culture

d) Good career progression

13 / 44

13) Which of these is a modern recruitment trend?

a) Only campus hiring

b) Manual job boards

c) Social recruiting using platforms like LinkedIn

d) Ignoring social media

14 / 44

14) A challenge in remote onboarding is:

a) Employee relocation

b) High cost of travel

c) Centralized seating

d) Lack of face-to-face interaction

15 / 44

15) AI in recruitment is mainly used for:

a) Cooking lunch for employees

b) Resume screening and candidate matching

c) Salary negotiation

d) Team building activities

16 / 44

16) What is a key cause of attrition in startups?

a) Lack of stability and workload pressure

b) High salaries

c) Strong training programs

d) Long-term job security

17 / 44

17) Which type of workforce is increasing due to the gig economy?

a) Freelancers and contractual staff

b) Full-time staff

c) Unemployed individuals

d) Retired workers

18 / 44

18) Which HR trend focuses on employee well-being and work-life balance?

a) Overworking staff

b) Ignoring flexible schedules

c) Hiring only locally

d) Remote work policies

19 / 44

19) One of the biggest challenges of remote hiring is:

a) Centralized seating

b) Free office snacks

c) Time zone differences

d) Employee uniforms

20 / 44

20) Involuntary attrition occurs when:

a) Employee switches jobs for promotion

b) Employee retires voluntarily

c) An employee is terminated by employe

d) An employee resigns

21 / 44

21) Gig workers are best described as:

a) Retired employees

b) Contract terminated staff

c) Permanent employees

d) Temporary or freelance workers

22 / 44

22) What is one major challenge in recruitment today?

a) Too few candidates using LinkedIn

b) Employees refusing promotions

c) Skill shortage in the market

d) Overstaffing in companies

23 / 44

23) Which industry is most associated with gig work?

a) Ride-sharing and food delivery

b) Government jobs

c) Healthcare

d) Manufacturing

24 / 44

24) A common challenge in AI hiring tools is:

a) Candidates refusing to apply

b) Lack of data analysis

c) Algorithmic bias

d) Too much manual work

25 / 44

25) Which HR strategy helps reduce attrition?

a) Providing training and development opportunities

b) No promotions

c) Poor career growth

d) Ignoring employees

26 / 44

26) Which of these is NOT a recruitment challenge?

a) Retention issues

b) Engaged employees staying long-term

c) High competition for talent

d) Skill gap

27 / 44

27) Which HR practice helps to reduce voluntary attrition?

a) Career development opportunities

b) Lack of recognition

c) Salary stagnation

d) Poor leadership

28 / 44

28) Which of the following is an ethical concern in AI recruitment?

a) Improved efficiency

b) Algorithmic discrimination

c) Resume screening

d) Faster shortlisting

29 / 44

29) Which act in India provides legal recognition of electronic records?

a) POSH Act, 2013

b) IT Act, 2000

c) Contract Act

d) Factories Act, 1948

30 / 44

30) The use of AI in recruitment helps in:

a) Hiring without process

b) Eliminating human resource teams

c) Improving efficiency in candidate screening

d) Avoiding interviews

31 / 44

31) Which of the following is a benefit of gig workers?

a) Flexibility for both company and worker

b) Fixed pension benefits

c) High long-term loyalty

d) High job security

32 / 44

32) Which of the following leads to voluntary attrition?

a) Retirement

b) Layoffs by employer

c) Employee resigning for better opportunity

d) Contract ending

33 / 44

33) Which recruitment method involves hiring candidates already known to current employees?

a) Employee referral program

b) Walk-in interviews

c) Blind hiring

d) Job portals

34 / 44

34) Which HR technology trend focuses on analyzing workforce data?

a) Manual hiring

b) People Analytics

c) Referral hiring

d) Face-to-face interviews only

35 / 44

35) What does attrition mean in HR?

a) Employee engagement activities

b) Promoting employees

c) Hiring new employees

d) Employees leaving the company over time

36 / 44

36) Which of the following is a retention strategy?

a) Ignoring promotions

b) Delayed salaries

c) Poor work culture

d) Offering career development and mentorship

37 / 44

37) Which HR trend focuses on using social media for employer branding?

a) Walk-in interviews

b) Blind hiring

c) Social recruiting

d) Campus recruitment

38 / 44

38) Which factor increases attrition among millennials?

a) Lack of career growth opportunities

b) Work-life balance policies

c) Flexible work culture

d) Skill development opportunities

39 / 44

39) Which recruitment method helps reduce bias in selection?

a) Manual shortlisting

b) Blind hiring

c) Nepotism

d) Referrals only

40 / 44

40) Which recruitment trend focuses on building long-term relationships with potential candidates?

a) Mass hiring

b) Talent pipelining

c) Random job postings

d) Temporary staffing

41 / 44

41) Which HR trend allows employees to work partly from home and office?

a) Hybrid work model

b) Work from home only

c) Gig work

d) Moonlighting

42 / 44

42) Which of the following is an example of gig work?

a) A teacher at a government school

b) A doctor employed at a hospital full-time

c) A delivery partner working with Swiggy

d) A software engineer working permanently at Infosys

43 / 44

43) Which of the following is an example of unethical hiring practice?

a) Equal opportunity hiring

b) Skills-based hiring

c) Blind hiring

d) Discrimination based on gender or caste

44 / 44

44) Which of the following is a major trend in modern HR recruitment?

a) Ignoring technology

b) Data-driven hiring decisions

c) Manual resume scanning

d) Hiring based only on gut feeling

Your score is

The average score is 91%

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D6

1 / 45

1) Halo effect in appraisal means:

a) Evaluating team only

b) Judging employee by one good trait

c) Judging based on multiple skills

d) Objective evaluation

2 / 45

2) Which of the following is a common method of performance appraisal?

a) ROI analysis

b) SWOT analysis

c) Balance sheet method

d) 360-degree feedback

3 / 45

3) Which transfer is done on employee’s request?

a) Employee-initiated transfer

b) Disciplinary transfer

c) Demotion

d) Lateral transfer

4 / 45

4) Which appraisal method records positive/negative employee behaviors?

a) Critical incident method

b) Ranking

c) Checklist

d) Forced distribution

5 / 45

5) Which of these is a challenge in performance appraisal?

a) Promotion opportunities

b) Job security

c) Halo effect bias

d) Salary increment

6 / 45

6) Which performance appraisal method focuses on measurable goals?

a) Critical incident method

b) Checklist method

c) MBO

d) Forced distribution

7 / 45

7) Transfer given as disciplinary action is:

a) Job rotation

b) Demotion transfer

c) Corrective transfer

d) Punitive transfer

8 / 45

8) Transfers that reduce overstaffing in one department are called:

a) Production transfer

b) Replacement transfer

c) Punitive transfer

d) Surplus transfer

9 / 45

9) Which appraisal error occurs when recent performance overshadows past?

a) Central tendency

b) Halo effect

c) Horn effect

d) Recency effect

10 / 45

10) Which method ranks employees from best to worst?

a) Ranking method

b) Forced choice method

c) Checklist

d) MBO

11 / 45

11) Which appraisal method involves peers, subordinates, and managers giving feedback?

a) Rating scale

b) Paired comparison

c) 360-degree feedback

d) Checklist method

12 / 45

12) Key objective of transfers is:

a) Punish employees only

b) Reduce salaries

c) Optimum utilization of manpower

d) Fire employees

13 / 45

13) Which transfer provides learning opportunities for employees?

a) Demotion transfer

b) Disciplinary transfer

c) Training transfer

d) Lateral transfer

14 / 45

14) Which is a limitation of performance appraisal?

a) Employee development

b) Identifying strengths

c) Bias and subjectivity

d) Promotions

15 / 45

15) Which transfer type is for better utilization of skills in another department?

a) Replacement transfer

b) Skill transfer

c) Cross-functional transfer

d) Job rotation

16 / 45

16) Which appraisal method reduces rating errors by multiple raters?

a) Checklist method

b) MBO

c) 360-degree feedback

d) Ranking

17 / 45

17) Which is NOT a modern appraisal technique?

a) Simple ranking

b) 360-degree feedback

c) BARS (Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales)

d) Assessment center

18 / 45

18) Transfer to another branch for personal reasons is:

a) Punitive transfer

b) Request transfer

c) emotion transfer

d) Production transfer

19 / 45

19) Transfer to meet sudden manpower needs is called:

a) Production transfer

b) Replacement transfer

c) Training transfer

d) Emergency transfer

20 / 45

20) Transfer without promotion is called:

a) Job enrichment

b) Horizontal or lateral transfer

c) Promotional transfer

d) Vertical transfer

21 / 45

21) Transfer to punish misconduct is called:

a) Disciplinary transfer

b) Lateral transfer

c) Employee-request transfer

d) Promotional transfer

22 / 45

22) Which appraisal method evaluates employee’s contribution to company goals?

a) Checklist

b) Critical incident

c) Ranking method

d) Balanced Scorecard

23 / 45

23) MBO (Management by Objectives) is related to:

a) Training programs

b) Payroll calculation

c) Planning projects

d) Appraising employees based on goals achieved

24 / 45

24) what is performance appraisal?

a) Hiring new employees

b) Providing salary only

c) Evaluating employee performance

d) Promoting employees only

25 / 45

25) benefit of performance appraisal is:

a) Creating conflicts

b) Identifying training needs

c) Increasing attrition

d) Creating conflicts

26 / 45

26) Which transfer supports employee development and retention?

a) Disciplinary transfer

b) Punitive transfer

c) Career development transfer

d) Demotion transfer

27 / 45

27) Paired comparison method is:

a) Comparing employees with industry standard

b) None

c) Comparing company to competitors

d) Comparing each employee with another

28 / 45

28) Main difference between appraisal and transfer is:

a) Appraisal = punishment, Transfer = reward

b) Appraisal = evaluates performance, Transfer = shifts role/location

c) Both are same

d) Transfer = evaluation, Appraisal = shifting

29 / 45

29) . Which of the following is NOT a performance appraisal method?

a) Graphic rating scale

b) Forced distribution

c) Auditing

d) Ranking method

30 / 45

30) Employee transfer means:

a) Changing employee’s job to another organization

b) Permanent termination

c) Moving employee from one position/location to another within same organization

d) Retirement

31 / 45

31) Which appraisal bias is when manager rates everyone “average”?

a) Leniency error

b) Central tendency

c) Recency effect

d) Halo effect

32 / 45

32) Which transfer helps career growth by moving employee to higher position with responsibilities?

a) Lateral transfer

b) Promotional transfer

c) Demotion

d) Job rotation

33 / 45

33) Transfer policy ensures

a) Fewer employees hired

b) More terminations

c) Transparency and fairness

d) None

34 / 45

34) Which modern appraisal method uses role-plays, case studies, simulations

a) Graphic rating

b) Critical incident

c) Assessment center

d) forced choice

35 / 45

35) Which is an example of modern appraisal method?

a) Checklist

b) Ranking

c) Graphic rating scale

d) Assessment center

36 / 45

36) Performance appraisal is important for:

a) Employee development and promotions

b) None

c) Reducing staff

d) Only salary increments

37 / 45

37) Limitation of MBO appraisal is:

a) Helps setting goals

b) Increases clarity

c) Encourages teamwork

d) Focuses only on results, ignores behavior

38 / 45

38) Who introduced MBO method?

a) Taylor

b) Peter Drucker

c) Henry Fayol

d) Elton Mayo

39 / 45

39) Which transfer reduces monotony by changing tasks?

a) Job rotation

b) Lateral transfer

c) Promotional transfer

d) Demotion transfer

40 / 45

40) Which is NOT a type of employee transfer?

a) Lateral transfer

b) Promotional transfer

c) External transfer to competitors

d) Demotion transfer

41 / 45

41) Which transfer is done to fill critical skill gaps?

a) Cross-functional transfer

b) Replacement transfer

c) Emergency transfer

d) Skill transfer

42 / 45

42) Forced distribution method of appraisal is:

a) Self-assessment only

b) Grouping employees into categories like top, average, poor

c) Rating all employees high

d) Interview-based

43 / 45

43) Who usually conducts performance appraisals?

a) Customers

b) Government officers

c) Supervisors/managers

d) Competitors

44 / 45

44) Main purpose of performance appraisal is:

a) Increasing working hours

b) Employee evaluation and development

c) Punishing employees

d) Reducing workforce

45 / 45

45) Self-appraisal means:

a) Employee evaluates their own performance

b) Peer evaluation

c) HR evaluates only

d) Manager evaluates employee

Your score is

The average score is 73%

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D7

1 / 44

1) Which of the following is a challenge in onboarding?

a) Peer introduction

b) Office tour

c) Information overload

d) Welcome event

2 / 44

2) Which of the following is NOT part of onboarding activities?

a) Giving company swag/kits

b) Office tour

c) Termination letter

d) Explaining job responsibilities

3 / 44

3) Which document is typically shared during onboarding?

a) Employee handbook

b) Performance appraisal form

c) Termination notice

d) Relieving letter

4 / 44

4) Which role does HR play in onboarding?

a) Only issuing termination letters

b) Salary deductions

c) Budget planning

d) Facilitator and coordinator of process

5 / 44

5) Which of the following is part of onboarding?

a) Layoffs

b) Exit interviews

c) Orientation programs

d) Final settlements

6 / 44

6) Orientation helps new employees understand:

a) Competitor analysis

b) Client complaints

c) Organizational culture and values

d) How to quit the job

7 / 44

7) A buddy in the buddy system is usually:

a) A peer or experienced co-worker

b) A recruiter

c) The CEO

d) A client

8 / 44

8) What is a risk of ineffective onboarding?

a) Promotion

b) Salary increase

c) High employee turnover

d) Low appraisals

9 / 44

9) Which HR practice helps reduce new hire anxiety?

a) payoff

b) Disciplinary action

c) Orientation

d) Exit interview

10 / 44

10) Which is a common onboarding activity?

a) Exit process

b) Layoff announcement

c) Budget audit

d) Welcome kit distribution

11 / 44

11) Real-world example: Which company uses “Welcome Home” events for onboarding?

a) airbnb

b) Infosys

c) Apple

d) Tesla

12 / 44

12) Which system assigns a colleague to help a new hire adjust?

a) Appraisal system

b) Mentorship program

c) Internship program

d) Buddy system

13 / 44

13) Which company is famous for its fun onboarding program "Noogler hats"?

a) Infosys

b) Google

c) Microsoft

d) Amazon

14 / 44

14) The buddy system helps new hires with:

a) Understanding informal culture

b) Salary negotiation

c) Firing process

d) Resigning faster

15 / 44

15) What is the purpose of buddy system beyond support?

a) Conducting appraisals

b) Handling payroll

c) Managing salary hikes

d) Building social connections at work

16 / 44

16) An effective onboarding program improves:

a) Employee turnover

b) Employee resignation

c) Employee conflicts

d) Employee retention

17 / 44

17) Final goal of onboarding & orientation is:

a) Smooth integration and long-term retention

b) Salary deduction

c) Early termination

d) High attrition

18 / 44

18) What is the link between onboarding and employer branding?

a) Onboarding reduces appraisal ratings

b) Onboarding avoids payroll issues

c) Onboarding increases resignations

d) Positive onboarding improves company image

19 / 44

19) Which of the following helps in structured onboarding?

a) Payroll slip

b) Layoff strategy

c) Exit policy

d) Checklist and timelines

20 / 44

20) What is the main purpose of employee onboarding?

a) To hire employees

b) To train managers

c) To terminate employees

d) To integrate new employees into the organization

21 / 44

21) Which onboarding method encourages engagement?

a) Storytelling about company journey

b) Silent paperwork

c) Only compliance training

d) No introductions

22 / 44

22) . Which is a modern trend in onboarding?

a) Gamified onboarding apps

b) Salary deductions

c) Layoffs

d) Termination meetings

23 / 44

23) The buddy system is especially useful for:

a) First 90 days of joining

b) Resignation process

c) Annual leave planning

d) Retirement stage

24 / 44

24) What is “continuous onboarding”?

a) Layoff planning

b) Annual appraisal

c) Only orientation on first day

d) Supporting employees beyond day one, throughout career journey

25 / 44

25) What is an advantage of pre-boarding?

a) Employee skips joining

b) Employee can resign earlier

c) Employee feels prepared on day one

d) Employee avoids appraisal

26 / 44

26) The first day of onboarding is usually focused on:

a) Promotion discussions

b) Paperwork and introductions

c) Exit process

d) Performance appraisal

27 / 44

27) Which of the following is a digital onboarding method?

a) Annual appraisals

b) Online forms and e-learning modules

c) Face-to-face exit interview

d) Client meetings

28 / 44

28) Which real-world example is correct?

a) Google fires employees in orientation

b) Infosys pays employees to resign on first day

c) Zappos offers $2000 to quit if not engaged after orientation

d) Apple skips orientation

29 / 44

29) What is a sign of successful onboarding?

a) Employees feel confident and engaged

b) Employees avoid managers

c) Employees resign quickly

d) Employees hide from HR

30 / 44

30) Employee orientation mainly focuses on:

a) Teaching about company policies and culture

b) Conducting job interviews

c) Reducing attrition immediately

d) Negotiating salary

31 / 44

31) Orientation sessions usually include:

a) Exit settlements

b) Customer complaints

c) Salary hike

d) Policies, culture, compliance

32 / 44

32) A good onboarding process can reduce:

a) Early attrition

b) Market competition

c) Employee leaves

d) Appraisal scores

33 / 44

33) What is pre-boarding?

a) Activities before day one of joining

b) Activities during resignation

c) Activities after appraisal

d) Activities after exit

34 / 44

34) Which KPI measures onboarding success?

a) Salary hike %

b) Client churn rate

c) 90-day retention rate

d) Market share

35 / 44

35) Who benefits most from a buddy system?

a) HR managers only

b) Senior management only

c) Exiting employees

d) New employees adjusting to culture

36 / 44

36) Which is an example of real-world onboarding?

a) Annual appraisal at IBM

b) Employee exit at Infosys

c) Layoff practice at startups

d) Google’s Noogler program with colored hats

37 / 44

37) Why do companies invest in buddy systems?

a) To reduce HR workload only

b) To reduce attrition and increase engagement

c) To plan exits

d) To manage salaries

38 / 44

38) Onboarding failure often leads to:

a) Performance awards

b) Promotions

c) Early attrition

d) Appraisals

39 / 44

39) Orientation is usually conducted by:

a) HR team

b) Clients

c) Competitors

d) External vendors only

40 / 44

40) Which onboarding style is best for global teams?

a) Virtual/remote onboarding tools

b) Local buddy system only

c) No onboarding

d) Exit interview

41 / 44

41) A strong onboarding program connects new hires to:

a) Client complaints

b) Exit process

c) Competitor’s culture

d) Company mission and values

42 / 44

42) Which onboarding step helps new hires feel welcome?

a) Welcome lunch/ice-breaking activity

b) Exit interview

c) Warning letter

d) Payroll deduction

43 / 44

43) Which tech is used in digital onboarding?

a) AI chatbots for FAQs

b) Paper only

c) Fax machines

d) Typewriters

44 / 44

44) Which is a goal of orientation?

a) Cutting HR costs only

b) Reducing first-day confusion

c) Terminating employees

d) Firing non-performers

Your score is

The average score is 75%

Objectives of an HR Internship

Skills You’ll Develop

Leave a Reply Cancel reply