Human Resources (HR)

An HR (Human Resources) Internship is a structured training opportunity for students, fresh graduates, or career switchers to gain hands-on experience in Human Resources management. Interns assist the HR department in areas like recruitment, onboarding, payroll, employee engagement, compliance, and HR operations.

It helps interns understand how HR contributes to employee management, workplace culture, and organizational growth.

Objectives of an HR Internship

Gain exposure to recruitment and talent acquisition.
Understand HR policies, compliance, and labor laws.
Learn about employee engagement, performance management, and payroll.
Develop communication and interpersonal skills.
Get familiar with HR tools (HRMS, ATS, LinkedIn Recruiter, Excel).

Skills You’ll Develop

Recruitment & Screening – shortlisting CVs, scheduling interviews.
Onboarding & Documentation – employee joining formalities.
HR Operations – maintaining records, attendance, leave management.
Payroll Assistance – salary processing basics.
Compliance & Policies – labor laws, HR policies.
Employee Engagement – events, surveys, feedback collection.
Soft Skills – communication, problem-solving, time management.

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D1

1 / 45

1) Which of these is a quantitative measure of HR effectiveness?

a) Motivation level

b) Absenteeism rate

c) Leadership skills

d) Employee satisfaction survey

2 / 45

2) Which of the following comes under HRM roles?

a) Product Pricing

b) Employee Welfare

c) Financial Planning

d) Market Expansion

3 / 45

3) Which of the following is a function of HRM?

a) Recruiting staff

b) Marketing products

c) Designing machines

d) Selling goods

4 / 45

4) Strategic HRM links human resource practices with:

a) Machinery

b) Only payroll functions

c) Company’s overall business strategy

d) Product design

5 / 45

5) One of the main challenges for HRM in the digital era is:

a) Managing e-HRM and remote workforce

b) Payroll only

c) Importing technology

d) Selling digital products

6 / 45

6) One of the measurable objectives of HRM is:

a) Improve employee productivity

b) Cut training

c) Increase employee turnover

d) Reduce employee satisfaction

7 / 45

7) The role of HRM in an organization is mainly:

a) To increase machine efficiency

b) To handle only salaries

c) To produce goods

d) To manage people and their performance

8 / 45

8) A key role of HRM in globalization is:

a) Importing goods

b) Selling products abroad

c) Designing new machines

d) Managing a diverse workforce

9 / 45

9) Compensation management deals with:

a) Training customers

b) Employee pay and benefits

c) Reducing cost of machines

d) Designing products

10 / 45

10) Which HRM function ensures fair pay compared to the industry standard?

a) Employee Relations

b) Compensation Management

c) Training

d) Job Design

11 / 45

11) Which of the following is an example of an operational HR function?

a) Long-term HR planning

b) Employee record management

c) Policy formulation

d) Aligning HR with strategy

12 / 45

12) The ultimate aim of HRM is to:

a) Increase machine utilization

b) Ensure effective use of human talent for organizational goals

c) Reduce employee welfare

d) Focus only on profit

13 / 45

13) The HR role in performance management is to:

a) Manufacture new machines

b) Improve customer loyalty

c) Evaluate and guide employee performance

d) Conduct advertising campaigns

14 / 45

14) Which of these is NOT an HRM role?

a) Employee champion

b) Administrative expert

c) Machine operator

d) Strategic partner

15 / 45

15) Which model of HRM emphasizes employee commitment as a key factor?

a) Taylor’s Model

b) Fayol’s Model

c) Mayo’s Model

d) Harvard Model

16 / 45

16) The process of hiring the right person for the right job is called:

a) Recruitment

b) Promotion

c) Development

d) Retrenchment

17 / 45

17) The function of Industrial Relations within HRM deals with:

a) Customer grievances

b) Labor unions and negotiations

c) Raw materials

d) Advertising

18 / 45

18) Job analysis is the process of:

a) Promoting employees

b) Selling goods

c) Marketing

d) Identifying job requirements and skills needed

19 / 45

19) One important objective of HRM is:

a) To utilize human resources effectively

b) To improve customer sales

c) To increase machine hours

d) To reduce product quality

20 / 45

20) Which one is a managerial function of HRM?

a) Training

b) Recruitment

c) Organizing workforce

d) Compensation

21 / 45

21) HRM is considered as a __________ function of management.

a) Managerial

b) Operational

c) Strategic

d) Financial

22 / 45

22) The administrative role of HR is mainly concerned with:

a) Training suppliers

b) Marketing products

c) Record keeping and compliance

d) Long-term planning

23 / 45

23) Which of the following is NOT an objective of HRM?

a) Maximizing profit only

b) Employee satisfaction

c) Employee development

d) Employee training

24 / 45

24) Succession planning is directly related to:

a) Training customers

b) Preparing future leaders

c) Hiring temporary staff

d) Reducing workforce

25 / 45

25) The “soft” approach to HRM emphasizes:

a) Machinery utilization

b) Reducing staff strength

c) Employee welfare and motivation

d) Strict control

26 / 45

26) The function of "providing training and development" belongs to:

a) IT Department

b) Finance Department

c) HR Department

d) Production Department

27 / 45

27) Which of the following is the correct full form of HRM?

a) Human Research Management

b) Human Relations Management

c) Human Role Management

d) Human Resource Management

28 / 45

28) Who is considered the “Father of Personnel Management”?

a) Elton Mayo

b) Henry Fayol

c) F.W. Taylor

d) Peter Drucker

29 / 45

29) The function of performance appraisal is linked to:

a) Evaluating employee work

b) Marketing strategy

c) Advertising

d) Buying new machines

30 / 45

30) HRM deals with __________.

a) Labor

b) Land

c) Materials

d) Machines

31 / 45

31) Which function of HRM ensures that the right number of people are available at the right time?

a) Motivation

b) Performance Appraisal

c) Training

d) HR Planning

32 / 45

32) An important objective of HRM is employee motivation because:

a) Motivated employees work efficiently

b) It decreases training needs

c) It reduces product costv

d) It increases machine productivity

33 / 45

33) Which of these objectives of HRM focuses on society?

a) Employee career development

b) Productivity growth

c) Legal compliance and social responsibility

d) Employer–employee harmony

34 / 45

34) The HRM function that ensures employees are continuously updated with new skills is:

a) Grievance Handling

b) Compensation

c) Training and Development

d) Employee Relations

35 / 45

35) Human Resource Management (HRM) is mainly concerned with:

a) Managing people

b) Managing money

c) Managing machines

d) Managing technology

36 / 45

36) The HRM role of being a “Change Agent” means:

a) Selling new products

b) Leading organizational transformation

c) Filing records

d) Controlling machine cost

37 / 45

37) One of the primary functions of HRM is:

a) Sales Promotion

b) Production Planning

c) Advertising

d) Recruitment and Selection

38 / 45

38) he main focus of HRM is on

a) Machinery

b) Employee management

c) Product development

d) Market research

39 / 45

39) Which of the following is a strategic objective of HRM?

a) Control raw material cost

b) Align people with organizational goals

c) Increase stock prices

d) Reduce taxes

40 / 45

40) The “strategic role” of HRM includes:

a) Supporting long-term business goals

b) Advertising products

c) Record keeping

d) Daily attendance

41 / 45

41) Which of the following is NOT a function of HRM?

a) Recruitment

b) Training employees

c) Selling productsv

d) Employee welfare

42 / 45

42) HRM ensures compliance with:

a) Tax laws only

b) Product design standards

c) Labor laws and employment regulations

d) Sales targets

43 / 45

43) The function of “employee relations” is focused on:

a) Product distribution

b) Pricing strategy

c) Machine maintenance

d) Employer–employee harmony

44 / 45

44) Modern HRM differs from traditional Personnel Management mainly because it:

a) Is strategic and employee-centric

b) Is purely administrative

c) Ignores training

d) Focuses only on payroll

45 / 45

45) Which one of the following is a developmental function of HRM?

a) Payroll processing

b) Record maintenance

c) Training and development

d) Recruitment

Your score is

The average score is 90%

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D2

1 / 45

1) Talent pipeline in recruitment refers to:

a) Employee transfers

b) A pool of potential candidates for future roles

c) Outsourcing recruitment

d) Internal promotions

2 / 45

2) The purpose of workforce planning in recruitment is:

a) To expand machines

b) To decide number and type of people needed

c) To reduce product cost

d) To increase marketing campaigns

3 / 45

3) The process of narrowing down applicants from a pool is called:

a) Screening

b) Training

c) Recruiting

d) Forecasting

4 / 45

4) Which of the following is NOT a step in recruitment planning?

a) Identifying number of vacancies

b) Planning salary hikes

c) Shortlisting candidates

d) Defining job requirements

5 / 45

5) Which one of the following is an example of external recruitment?

a) Campus recruitment

b) Transfer

c) Job rotation

d) Promotion

6 / 45

6) Advertisement in newspapers for job openings is an example of:

a) Transfer

b) Promotion

c) External recruitment

d) Internal recruitment

7 / 45

7) Which is a drawback of external recruitment?

a) Brings new ideas

b) Costly and time-consuming

c) Large pool of candidates

d) Provides diversity

8 / 45

8) A realistic recruitment policy ensures:

a) Unlimited hiring

b) Only hiring friends

c) Hiring the right candidate at the right time

d) Outsourcing all jobs

9 / 45

9) Which of the following is NOT a source of external recruitment?

a) Campus interviews

b) Promotion

c) Job fairs

d) Employment agencies

10 / 45

10) Workforce forecasting in recruitment involves:

a) Predicting future manpower needs

b) Improving products

c) Increasing machine output

d) Reducing workforce size

11 / 45

11) Which of the following is NOT a step of recruitment?

a) Selecting candidates

b) Selling products

c) Attracting candidates

d) Advertising vacancies

12 / 45

12) Which of these is a modern method of recruitment?

a) Newspaper ads

b) E-recruitment (online portals)

c) Job rotation

d) Employee transfer

13 / 45

13) Which one is a qualitative aspect of recruitment planning?

a) Number of people hired

b) Time taken to hire

c) Candidate’s attitude and motivation

d) Cost per hire

14 / 45

14) Which one comes first in recruitment planning?

a) Conducting appraisal

b) Giving training

c) Identifying manpower needs

d) Selecting candidates

15 / 45

15) Which step comes immediately after job analysis?

a) Job specification

b) Selection

c) Interviewing

d) Advertising vacancy

16 / 45

16) Internal recruitment refers to:

a) Hiring on contract basis

b) Hiring from within the company

c) Hiring consultants only

d) Hiring from outside the company

17 / 45

17) Employee referrals are considered as:

a) Internal source of recruitment

b) External source of recruitment

c) Outsourcing

d) None

18 / 45

18) Recruitment is the process of:

a) Managing machines

b) Selecting goods for sale

c) Advertising products

d) Attracting and hiring people for jobs

19 / 45

19) The final step in the recruitment process is:

a) Training

b) Selection decision and job offer

c) Advertisement

d) Job analysis

20 / 45

20) One of the advanced techniques in recruitment is:

a) AI-based candidate screening

b) Manual paperwork

c) Word of mouth hiring only

d) Internal job posting only

21 / 45

21) The recruitment policy of a company should be aligned with:

a) Organizational objectives

b) Product pricing

c) Market competition

d) Competitor’s policies

22 / 45

22) Which of these is an internal source of recruitment?

a) Job posting on website

b) Campus placement

c) Employee referrals

d) Employment exchange

23 / 45

23) The first step in the recruitment process is:

a) Appointment letter

b) Interview

c) Job analysis

d) Performance appraisal

24 / 45

24) Which is NOT an objective of recruitment planning?

a) Attracting suitable candidates

b) Matching job requirements with candidates

c) Increasing product price

d) Reducing cost of hiring

25 / 45

25) Manpower planning is also called:

a) Product planning

b) Machine planning

c) Workforce planning

d) Financial planning

26 / 45

26) E-recruitment is also known as:

a) Internal recruitment

b) Outsourcing

c) Manual hiring

d) Online recruitment

27 / 45

27) Realistic Job Preview (RJP) is used to:

a) Provide honest information about job

b) Hide weaknesses of job

c) Train candidates

d) Reduce hiring cost

28 / 45

28) Which document is prepared before starting recruitment?

a) Job description

b) Pay slip

c) Offer letter

d) Performance appraisal

29 / 45

29) Job specification mainly includes:

a) Employee’s qualifications and skills required

b) Salary details

c) Duties and responsibilities of job

d) Company history

30 / 45

30) The main objective of recruitment is:

a) To increase sales

b) To reduce machines’ downtime

c) To increase profits only

d) To fill job vacancies with suitable candidates

31 / 45

31) Which of these agencies help in external recruitment?

a) Employee transfers

b) Government employment exchange

c) Job rotation

d) Internal promotions

32 / 45

32) A key challenge in recruitment is:

a) Finding skilled candidates in a competitive market

b) Expanding marketing area

c) Designing products

d) Increasing machine productivity

33 / 45

33) The term “headhunting” in recruitment refers to:

a) Referring friends

b) Promoting internal staff

c) Hiring trainees

d) Hiring senior professionals from outside

34 / 45

34) The role of HR in recruitment is:

a) To plan, attract and hire people

b) To sell services

c) To manage machines

d) To manufacture goods

35 / 45

35) Outsourcing in recruitment means:

a) Promoting existing staff

b) Hiring vendors to provide recruitment services

c) Hiring through referrals

d) Conducting internal job posting

36 / 45

36) Employer branding helps in recruitment by:

a) Reducing machine costs

b) Avoiding promotions

c) Attracting quality candidates

d) Increasing marketing sales

37 / 45

37) Strategic recruitment aims at:

a) Reducing salaries

b) Hiring temporary workers only

c) Aligning hiring with long-term business goals

d) Quick hiring only

38 / 45

38) Outsourcing in recruitment means:

a) Hiring vendors to provide recruitment services

b) Conducting internal job posting

c) Hiring through referrals

d) Promoting existing staff

39 / 45

39) Recruitment metrics are used to:

a) Train employees

b) Advertise vacancies

c) Manage salaries

d) Measure the effectiveness of recruitment

40 / 45

40) Which of these is a disadvantage of internal recruitment?

a) Improves employee loyalty

b) Creates motivation among employees

c) Limits fresh talent and new ideas

d) Reduces training cost

41 / 45

41) The ultimate aim of recruitment is to:

a) Expand markets

b) Increase machine output

c) Fill vacancies with best talent

d) Reduce employee salaries

42 / 45

42) Recruitment is different from selection because recruitment is mainly:

a) Training new hires

b) Rejecting unsuitable candidates

c) Conducting interviews

d) Attracting potential candidates

43 / 45

43) Campus recruitment is useful for:

a) Hiring fresh graduates

b) Promoting senior employees

c) Transferring staff

d) Hiring unskilled workers

44 / 45

44) Which recruitment source saves time and cost?

a) Campus recruitment

b) Internal recruitment

c) Job advertisements

d) Employment agencies

45 / 45

45) Realistic Job Preview (RJP) is used to:

a) Hide weaknesses of job

b) Reduce hiring cost

c) Provide honest information about job

d) Train candidates

Your score is

The average score is 90%

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D3

1 / 45

1) Which of the following improves candidate quality in sourcing?

a) Accuracy

b) Random resume collection

c) Strong employer branding

d) Hiring without screening

2 / 45

2) Passive candidates are:

a) Already rejected candidates

b) Not actively looking but open to opportunities

c) Candidates without resumes

d) Actively looking for jobs

3 / 45

3) Which of the following is an online professional networking site?

a) Instagram

b) Twitter

c) Snapchat

d) LinkedIn

4 / 45

4) Resume screening software that uses AI is often called:

a) CRM

b) MIS

c) ATS (Applicant Tracking System)

d) ERP

5 / 45

5) One key benefit of job portals compared to referrals is:

a) Only hiring internal staff

b) Lower competition

c) More personal recommendations

d) Larger candidate poo

6 / 45

6) Which sourcing method is most cost-effective for startups?

a) Outsourced agencies

b) Paid LinkedIn Recruiter

c) International job portals

d) Employee referrals

7 / 45

7) Which advanced screening technique reduces unconscious bias?

a) Blind resume screening

b) Job posting

c) Employee referrals

d) Manual shortlisting

8 / 45

8) Which LinkedIn tool allows recruiters to send messages directly to non-connections

a) Direct Chat

b) Email Sync

c) Job Post

d) InMail

9 / 45

9) Which is a disadvantage of job portals?

a) Quick posting

b) Easy access to candidates

c) Too many irrelevant resumes

d) Wide reach

10 / 45

10) Which of the following is NOT a sourcing technique?

a) LinkedIn search

b) Employee performance appraisal

c) Campus placement

d) Job portals

11 / 45

11) Screening criteria may include:

a) Food habits

b) Personal hobbies only

c) Favorite movies

d) Education, skills, and work experienc

12 / 45

12) A Boolean search uses symbols such as:

a) AND, OR, NOT

b) Plus, Minus, Equal

c) $, %, #

d) Copy, Paste

13 / 45

13) Which sourcing method provides direct access to fresh graduates?

a) Payroll data

b) Resume filtering

c) Job fairs and campus recruitment

d) Employee referrals

14 / 45

14) Which method is best for sourcing niche roles?

a) Walk-in interviews

b) Employee rotation

c) LinkedIn networking and headhunting

d) Mass job portals only

15 / 45

15) Which of the following is a modern sourcing technique?

a) Word-of-mouth hiring only

b) Newspaper advertisements only

c) AI-powered talent search

d) Manual resume collection

16 / 45

16) A recruiter posts a job on LinkedIn and shares it in relevant groups. This is an example of:

a) Job rotation

b) Social sourcing

c) Internal transfer

d) Resume filtering

17 / 45

17) A disadvantage of LinkedIn sourcing is:

a) Paid premium features for advanced searches

b) No job posting option

c) Limited professional networking

d) No access to professionals

18 / 45

18) Which LinkedIn feature helps in targeted job ads?

a) LinkedIn Jobs

b) LinkedIn Payroll

c) LinkedIn Chat

d) LinkedIn Stories

19 / 45

19) Predictive analytics in sourcing is used for:

a) advertising jobs offline

b) Shortlisting internal transfers

c) Forecasting which candidates will perform well

d) Sending payroll slips

20 / 45

20) LinkedIn Recruiter tool is designed for:

a) Employee training

b) Finding and contacting potential candidates

c) Payroll processing

d) Social media advertising

21 / 45

21) A Boolean search on LinkedIn or job portals is used for:

a) Salary calculation

b) Advertising products

c) Filtering resumes using keywords and operators

d) Counting employees

22 / 45

22) Which of the following is an internal sourcing method?

a) Employee referrals

b) LinkedIn ads

c) Employment agencies

d) Job portals

23 / 45

23) LinkedIn allows recruiters to:

a) Sell products only

b) Conduct machine maintenance

c) Manage payroll

d) Post and promote jobs

24 / 45

24) Resume screening helps HR to:

a) Conduct training programs

b) Hire without interviews

c) Promote existing employees

d) Identify candidates who meet job requirements

25 / 45

25) The final step in sourcing and screening is:

a) Shortlisting for interviews

b) Employee transfer

c) Writing job descriptions

d) Sending payroll details

26 / 45

26) Resume databases of job portals are used for:

a) Managing company payroll

b) Organizing meetings

c) Storing and retrieving candidate information

d) Advertising services

27 / 45

27) Sourcing in recruitment means:

a) Attracting and identifying potential job candidates

b) Searching for raw materials

c) Conducting training

d) Sending offer letters

28 / 45

28) The ultimate goal of sourcing and screening is:

a) Accuracy

b) Selecting the most suitable candidates for interviews

c) Promoting existing staff

d) Increasing job ads only

29 / 45

29) Screening in recruitment mainly refers to:

a) Training new employees

b) Advertising job vacancies

c) Conducting exit interviews

d) Filtering and shortlisting suitable candidates

30 / 45

30) Which feature of job portals helps recruiters quickly find suitable candidates?

a) Marketing tools

b) Performance reviews

c) Resume database search

d) Salary slip generation

31 / 45

31) One limitation of job portals is:

a) Easy access to resumes

b) High competition and irrelevant applications

c) Faster sourcing

d) Large pool of candidates

32 / 45

32) Resume filtering is done to:

a) Edit job descriptions

b) Prepare payroll

c) Remove irrelevant applications

d) Train employees

33 / 45

33) ATS filters resumes based on:

a) Salary expectations only

b) Hobbies only

c) Keywords and job criteria

d) Candidate photos

34 / 45

34) Which platform provides both job posting and candidate networking?

a) Dropbox

b) LinkedIn

c) Google Drive

d) Gmail

35 / 45

35) Which of these is NOT a job portal?

a) Monster

b) Indeed

c) YouTube

d) Glassdoor

36 / 45

36) One of the biggest advantages of LinkedIn sourcing is:

a) Employee transfer

b) Product promotion

c) Payroll generation

d) Access to passive candidates

37 / 45

37) The main aim of screening resumes is to:

a) shortlist the most qualified candidates

b) Promote existing staff

c) Train new hires

d) Reject all applicants

38 / 45

38) Job portals are mainly used for:

a) Sharing photos

b) Buying products

c) Conducting meetings

d) Posting job vacancies and sourcing candidates

39 / 45

39) An example of a job portal is:

a) Facebook

b) WhatsApp

c) Naukri.com

d) LinkedIn

40 / 45

40) A drawback of resume filtering manually is:

a) Cost-effective

b) Fast and error-free

c) Very accurate

d) Time-consuming and prone to bias

41 / 45

41) Which one is an automated screening tool?

a) Job rotation

b) Payroll system

c) Internal transfer

d) ATS

42 / 45

42) What is the purpose of keyword matching in resume filtering?

a) to train employees

b) To calculate salaries

c) to identify resumes that match job requirements

d) To prepare job descriptions

43 / 45

43) Which metric is used to measure sourcing effectiveness?

a) Employee turnover

b) Profit margin

c) Machine downtime

d) Source of hire

44 / 45

44) Employee referrals are considered as:

a) Screening method

b) External sourcing method

c) Internal sourcing method

d) Resume filtering

45 / 45

45) The process of ranking resumes based on job fit is called:

a) Resume rejection

b) candidate pooling

c) Job analysis

d) Resume scoring

Your score is

The average score is 95%

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D4

1 / 45

1) Interview scoring rubrics are useful because:

a) They encourage bias

b) They replace interviews fully

c) They standardize candidate evaluation

d) They increase casual discussions

2 / 45

2) In competency-based interviews, questions are linked to:

a) Specific skills and job competencies

b) Education only

c) Candidate’s family details

d) Random interests

3 / 45

3) A situational interview is different from behavioral because:

a) Situational = group, Behavioral = panel

b) Situational = future response, Behavioral = past behavior

c) Situational = only HR round, Behavioral = technical round

d) Situational = casual talk, Behavioral = serious talk

4 / 45

4) Which interview type checks how candidates would react in future job situations?

a) Stress interview

b) Hypothetical or situational interview

c) Exit interview

d) Panel interview

5 / 45

5) Selection is different from recruitment because selection involves:

a) Choosing the best-fit candidate

b) Advertising jobs

c) Posting vacancies

d) Attracting many applicants

6 / 45

6) An exit interview is conducted:

a) During promotions

b) At the time of employee resignation

c) Before training programs

d) When hiring new staff

7 / 45

7) Which of these is an evaluation tool after interviews?

a) Job advertisement

b) Resume database

c) Payroll register

d) Candidate rating sheet

8 / 45

8) The STAR technique in interviews is used for:

a) Training employees

b) Screening resumes

c) Salary benchmarking

d) Evaluating behavior through Situation, Task, Action, Result

9 / 45

9) A structured interview is characterized by:

a) Asking different random questions to each candidate

b) Using pre-determined, consistent questions for all candidates

c) No preparation at all

d) Informal chatting only

10 / 45

10) A group interview involves:

a) One interviewer and one candidate

b) Candidate meeting HR only

c) Candidate interviewing the employer

d) Multiple candidates interviewed together

11 / 45

11) Which interview is conducted online using video conferencing?

a) Virtual interview

b) Stress interview

c) Walk-in interview

d) Group interview

12 / 45

12) Which of the following helps ensure fairness in interviews?

a) Structured evaluation forms

b) Random questioning

c) Ignoring scoring

d) Quick judgments

13 / 45

13) An interviewer focusing only on negative aspects of a candidate is showing:

a) Contrast bias

b) Central tendency

c) Halo effect bias

d) Horn effect bias

14 / 45

14) A blind interview process means:

a) Interviewers ask no questions

b) Candidate closes their eyes

c) Candidate details (like gender, name, background) are hidden to reduce bias

d) Only resumes are checked

15 / 45

15) Telephonic interviews are usually conducted for:

a) performance appraisals

b) Initial screening of candidates

c) Final hiring decision

d) Salary payments

16 / 45

16) Which type of interview saves time by assessing many candidates together?

a) Walk-in interviewv

b) Stress interview

c) Panel interview

d) Group interview

17 / 45

17) Which type of interview focuses on technical knowledge and problem-solving?

a) Exit interview

b) Stress interview

c) Group interview

d) Technical interview

18 / 45

18) Which of the following is NOT a type of interview?

a) Machine interview

b) Panel interview

c) Stress interview

d) Walk-in interview

19 / 45

19) A stress interview may sometimes be criticized because:

a) It avoids bias

b) It helps identify coping skills

c) It tests resilience

d) It may create negative impressions of the company

20 / 45

20) Which interview is least structured and more like a casual talk?

a) Group interview

b) Informal interview

c) Panel interview

d) Structured interview

21 / 45

21) Which selection test is often used along with interviews?

a) Technical test

b) All of the above

c) Aptitude test

d) Psychometric test

22 / 45

22) Which of these is a disadvantage of unstructured interviews?

a) Highly biased and less reliable

b) Very consistent

c) Objective evaluation

d) Easy to compare candidates

23 / 45

23) Which interview technique asks candidates to narrate how they handled real situations?

a) Stress interview

b) Behavioral interview

c) Situational interview

d) Exit interview

24 / 45

24) Which type of interview is used to evaluate cultural fit in the organization?

a) Stress interview

b) Cultural fit interview

c) Panel interview

d) Exit interview

25 / 45

25) Which interview method is most suitable for high-volume hiring?

a) Panel interviews

b) Stress interviews

c) Group interviews

d) Exit interviews

26 / 45

26) A major limitation of panel interviews is:

a) Time-consuming and intimidating

b) Reduced bias

c) Multiple perspectives

d) Objectivity

27 / 45

27) Which interview is conducted by multiple interviewers together?

a) Panel interview

b) Telephone interview

c) Stress interview

d) Group interview

28 / 45

28) Technical interviews are mostly used in:

a) HR exit processes

b) Sales promotions

c) IT, engineering, and specialized roles

d) payroll management

29 / 45

29) The "first impression error" in interviews means:

a) Using rating sheets

b) Judging candidate based on initial impression only

c) Evaluating consistently

d) Following structured format

30 / 45

30) Which of the following is a step in the selection process?

a) All of the above

b) Resume shortlisting

c) Preliminary interview

d) Background verification

31 / 45

31) Central tendency bias in interviews happens when:

a) No ratings are given

b) All candidates are rated average regardless of performance

c) Only high scores are given

d) Only low scores are given

32 / 45

32) Which bias occurs when interviewers compare candidates instead of job standards?

a) Contrast bias

b) Similarity bias

c) Halo effect

d) Leniency bias

33 / 45

33) Which of the following is a method to reduce bias in interviews?

a) Relying on gut feeling

b) Using standardized rating scales

c) Focusing on first impressions

d) Asking personal questions

34 / 45

34) Which interview type assesses how candidates react under pressure?

a) Panel interview

b) Exit interview

c) Technical interview

d) Stress interview

35 / 45

35) One limitation of interviews as a selection tool is:

a) Possible bias and subjectivity

b) Personal interaction with candidates

c) Evaluating communication skills

d) Flexible questioning

36 / 45

36) The ultimate aim of interview and selection techniques is:

a) To reduce salary costs

b) To hire the best-fit candidate fairly and effectively

c) To promote existing employees

d) To reject maximum applicants

37 / 45

37) Which of these can cause bias in interviews?

a) Using structured questions

b) Personal judgments of the interviewer

c) Panel discussions

d) Standard evaluation forms

38 / 45

38) The purpose of combining interviews with tests and reference checks is to:

a) Reduce subjectivity and increase accuracy in selection

b) Delay hiring

c) Increase cost only

d) Replace interviews completely

39 / 45

39) The main objective of an interview in recruitment is:

a) To assess candidate’s suitability for a job

b) To advertise the company

c) To entertain candidates

d) To prepare payroll

40 / 45

40) One major purpose of interview evaluation is:

a) To reduce job vacancies

b) To avoid training

c) To compare candidates fairly

d) To reject all candidates

41 / 45

41) An interviewer rejecting candidates who are similar to them is showing:

a) Stereotyping bias

b) Similarity bias

c) Central tendency

d) Contrast bias

42 / 45

42) The "halo effect" bias in interviews means:

a) Neutral evaluation

b) Judging a candidate positively based on one strong quality

c) Ignoring personality

d) Judging based on negative traits

43 / 45

43) One way to minimize interviewer bias is to:

a) Avoid evaluation sheets

b) Depend only on intuition

c) Use multiple interviewers (panel)

d) Ignore job criteria

44 / 45

44) A behavioral interview is designed to:

a) Assess past experiences to predict future behavior

b) Evaluate hobbies

c) Judge fashion style

d) Test physical strength

45 / 45

45) Which advanced technique helps in evaluating candidates through recorded responses?

a) Manual note-taking

b) Video interviews with AI analysis

c) Exit interviews

d) Telephone calls only

Your score is

The average score is 93%

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D5

1 / 44

1) Which of the following is a benefit of gig workers?

a) High job security

b) Flexibility for both company and worker

c) High long-term loyalty

d) Fixed pension benefits

2 / 44

2) Which of the following leads to voluntary attrition?

a) Layoffs by employer

b) Retirement

c) Contract ending

d) Employee resigning for better opportunity

3 / 44

3) What does attrition mean in HR?

a) Employees leaving the company over time

b) Promoting employees

c) Hiring new employees

d) Employee engagement activities

4 / 44

4) The use of chatbots in recruitment helps in:

a) Deciding final salary

b) Answering candidate queries automatically

c) Writing offer letters

d) Conducting background verification

5 / 44

5) Which HR strategy helps reduce attrition?

a) Ignoring employees

b) Poor career growth

c) Providing training and development opportunities

d) No promotions

6 / 44

6) Which recruitment method helps reduce bias in selection?

a) Referrals only

b) Manual shortlisting

c) Blind hiring

d) Nepotism

7 / 44

7) What is one major challenge in recruitment today?

a) Too few candidates using LinkedIn

b) Overstaffing in companies

c) Skill shortage in the market

d) Employees refusing promotions

8 / 44

8) Which factor increases attrition among millennials?

a) Lack of career growth opportunities

b) Skill development opportunities

c) Work-life balance policies

d) Flexible work culture

9 / 44

9) A common challenge in AI hiring tools is:

a) Lack of data analysis

b) Candidates refusing to apply

c) Algorithmic bias

d) Too much manual work

10 / 44

10) Which recruitment trend focuses on building long-term relationships with potential candidates?

a) Mass hiring

b) Temporary staffing

c) Random job postings

d) Talent pipelining

11 / 44

11) Which type of workforce is increasing due to the gig economy?

a) Freelancers and contractual staff

b) Full-time staff

c) Retired workers

d) Unemployed individuals

12 / 44

12) Which HR strategy helps in employee retention?

a) Overburdening employees

b) Ignoring employee feedback

c) Poor pay scale

d) Offering career growth and recognition

13 / 44

13) Which of the following is a current trend in hiring?

a) Using Artificial Intelligence (AI) in recruitment

b) Only relying on newspapers for job ads

c) Ignoring technology in recruitment

d) Hiring without interviews

14 / 44

14) Which of the following is a limitation of gig workers for companies?

a) Lack of long-term commitment

b) Easy replacement

c) High loyalty

d) Low flexibility

15 / 44

15) What is a key cause of attrition in startups?

a) Lack of stability and workload pressure

b) Strong training programs

c) High salaries

d) Long-term job security

16 / 44

16) What is moonlighting in HR terms?

a) Doing a second job along with a primary one

b) Retiring early

c) Working overtime at the same company

d) Taking frequent leaves

17 / 44

17) Which HR technology trend focuses on analyzing workforce data?

a) Referral hiring

b) People Analytics

c) Manual hiring

d) Face-to-face interviews only

18 / 44

18) One of the biggest challenges of remote hiring is:

a) Employee uniforms

b) Free office snacks

c) Centralized seating

d) Time zone differences

19 / 44

19) Which of the following is an example of gig work?

a) A software engineer working permanently at Infosys

b) A doctor employed at a hospital full-time

c) A teacher at a government school

d) A delivery partner working with Swiggy

20 / 44

20) Which law in India deals with prevention of sexual harassment at workplace?

a) Contract Act

b) Companies Act, 2013

c) IT Act, 2000

d) POSH Act, 2013

21 / 44

21) Which technology is used for remote interviews?

a) Typewriter

b) Fax machine

c) Loudspeaker

d) Video conferencing tools like Zoom and MS Teams

22 / 44

22) Which of the following is NOT a factor in attrition?

a) Good career progression

b) Toxic culture

c) Salary dissatisfaction

d) Work-life imbalance

23 / 44

23) Which of the following is a major trend in modern HR recruitment?

a) Hiring based only on gut feeling

b) Manual resume scanning

c) Ignoring technology

d) Data-driven hiring decisions

24 / 44

24) Which act in India provides legal recognition of electronic records?

a) POSH Act, 2013

b) Contract Act

c) Factories Act, 1948

d) IT Act, 2000

25 / 44

25) Which HR trend focuses on employee well-being and work-life balance?

a) Overworking staff

b) Hiring only locally

c) Remote work policies

d) Ignoring flexible schedules

26 / 44

26) Which of these is a modern recruitment trend?

a) Only campus hiring

b) Social recruiting using platforms like LinkedIn

c) Manual job boards

d) Ignoring social media

27 / 44

27) A challenge in remote onboarding is:

a) Centralized seating

b) High cost of travel

c) Lack of face-to-face interaction

d) Employee relocation

28 / 44

28) Which of the following is an ethical concern in AI recruitment?

a) Faster shortlisting

b) Resume screening

c) Algorithmic discrimination

d) Improved efficiency

29 / 44

29) Which of the following is a retention strategy?

a) Poor work culture

b) Offering career development and mentorship

c) Delayed salaries

d) Ignoring promotions

30 / 44

30) AI in recruitment is mainly used for:

a) Resume screening and candidate matching

b) Cooking lunch for employees

c) Team building activities

d) Salary negotiation

31 / 44

31) The use of AI in recruitment helps in:

a) Improving efficiency in candidate screening

b) Avoiding interviews

c) Eliminating human resource teams

d) Hiring without process

32 / 44

32) Involuntary attrition occurs when:

a) An employee is terminated by employe

b) Employee retires voluntarily

c) Employee switches jobs for promotion

d) An employee resigns

33 / 44

33) Which recruitment method involves hiring candidates already known to current employees?

a) Job portals

b) Blind hiring

c) Employee referral program

d) Walk-in interviews

34 / 44

34) Which HR metric measures the rate at which employees leave a company?

a) Attrition rate

b) Retention rate

c) Engagement score

d) Productivity index

35 / 44

35) Which of the following is a reason for high attrition?

a) Career growth opportunities

b) Recognition and rewards

c) Employee training programs

d) Low salary and poor work culture

36 / 44

36) Which HR practice helps to reduce voluntary attrition?

a) Lack of recognition

b) Poor leadership

c) Salary stagnation

d) Career development opportunities

37 / 44

37) Which HR trend allows employees to work partly from home and office?

a) Work from home only

b) Gig work

c) Moonlighting

d) Hybrid work model

38 / 44

38) Which of the following is an example of unethical hiring practice?

a) Blind hiring

b) Equal opportunity hiring

c) Discrimination based on gender or caste

d) Skills-based hiring

39 / 44

39) Which HR trend focuses on using social media for employer branding?

a) Social recruiting

b) Blind hiring

c) Walk-in interviews

d) Campus recruitment

40 / 44

40) Which of these is NOT a recruitment challenge?

a) Retention issues

b) Engaged employees staying long-term

c) High competition for talent

d) Skill gap

41 / 44

41) Which industry is most associated with gig work?

a) Healthcare

b) Manufacturing

c) Ride-sharing and food delivery

d) Government jobs

42 / 44

42) What is the purpose of predictive analytics in recruitment?

a) Deciding company profits

b) Forecasting candidate success and attrition

c) Predicting stock market growth

d) Measuring customer satisfaction

43 / 44

43) Gig workers are best described as:

a) Retired employees

b) Temporary or freelance workers

c) Permanent employees

d) Contract terminated staff

44 / 44

44) Which generation of employees prefers gig and freelance opportunities more?

a) None of these

b) Silent Generation

c) Baby Boomers

d) gen Z and Millennials

Your score is

The average score is 91%

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D6

1 / 45

1) Which transfer provides learning opportunities for employees?

a) Demotion transfer

b) Disciplinary transfer

c) Lateral transfer

d) Training transfer

2 / 45

2) Which is NOT a modern appraisal technique?

a) Assessment center

b) Simple ranking

c) 360-degree feedback

d) BARS (Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales)

3 / 45

3) Which is an example of modern appraisal method?

a) Graphic rating scale

b) Assessment center

c) Ranking

d) Checklist

4 / 45

4) Transfer to another branch for personal reasons is:

a) Production transfer

b) emotion transfer

c) Request transfer

d) Punitive transfer

5 / 45

5) Which appraisal method evaluates employee’s contribution to company goals?

a) Balanced Scorecard

b) Checklist

c) Critical incident

d) Ranking method

6 / 45

6) Which performance appraisal method focuses on measurable goals?

a) MBO

b) Checklist method

c) Forced distribution

d) Critical incident method

7 / 45

7) Which of the following is a common method of performance appraisal?

a) 360-degree feedback

b) ROI analysis

c) Balance sheet method

d) SWOT analysis

8 / 45

8) Transfer to meet sudden manpower needs is called:

a) Emergency transfer

b) Training transfer

c) Replacement transfer

d) Production transfer

9 / 45

9) Which method ranks employees from best to worst?

a) MBO

b) Checklist

c) Forced choice method

d) Ranking method

10 / 45

10) Which is a limitation of performance appraisal?

a) Employee development

b) Promotions

c) Identifying strengths

d) Bias and subjectivity

11 / 45

11) Transfer policy ensures

a) More terminations

b) Fewer employees hired

c) None

d) Transparency and fairness

12 / 45

12) Who introduced MBO method?

a) Peter Drucker

b) Taylor

c) Henry Fayol

d) Elton Mayo

13 / 45

13) Which transfer type is for better utilization of skills in another department?

a) Replacement transfer

b) Cross-functional transfer

c) Skill transfer

d) Job rotation

14 / 45

14) Which appraisal method reduces rating errors by multiple raters?

a) MBO

b) 360-degree feedback

c) Ranking

d) Checklist method

15 / 45

15) . Which of the following is NOT a performance appraisal method?

a) Auditing

b) Forced distribution

c) Ranking method

d) Graphic rating scale

16 / 45

16) Which transfer helps career growth by moving employee to higher position with responsibilities?

a) Lateral transfer

b) Demotion

c) Job rotation

d) Promotional transfer

17 / 45

17) Which appraisal error occurs when recent performance overshadows past?

a) Recency effect

b) Horn effect

c) Central tendency

d) Halo effect

18 / 45

18) Transfers that reduce overstaffing in one department are called:

a) Surplus transfer

b) Production transfer

c) Punitive transfer

d) Replacement transfer

19 / 45

19) Which appraisal bias is when manager rates everyone “average”?

a) Recency effect

b) Leniency error

c) Halo effect

d) Central tendency

20 / 45

20) Transfer to punish misconduct is called:

a) Employee-request transfer

b) Lateral transfer

c) Promotional transfer

d) Disciplinary transfer

21 / 45

21) Transfer given as disciplinary action is:

a) Job rotation

b) Punitive transfer

c) Corrective transfer

d) Demotion transfer

22 / 45

22) Forced distribution method of appraisal is:

a) Interview-based

b) Rating all employees high

c) Self-assessment only

d) Grouping employees into categories like top, average, poor

23 / 45

23) Self-appraisal means:

a) Manager evaluates employee

b) Peer evaluation

c) Employee evaluates their own performance

d) HR evaluates only

24 / 45

24) Which modern appraisal method uses role-plays, case studies, simulations

a) forced choice

b) Assessment center

c) Critical incident

d) Graphic rating

25 / 45

25) Which appraisal method records positive/negative employee behaviors?

a) Critical incident method

b) Ranking

c) Checklist

d) Forced distribution

26 / 45

26) Limitation of MBO appraisal is:

a) Focuses only on results, ignores behavior

b) Helps setting goals

c) Encourages teamwork

d) Increases clarity

27 / 45

27) Halo effect in appraisal means:

a) Judging employee by one good trait

b) Judging based on multiple skills

c) Objective evaluation

d) Evaluating team only

28 / 45

28) Which appraisal method involves peers, subordinates, and managers giving feedback?

a) Rating scale

b) 360-degree feedback

c) Paired comparison

d) Checklist method

29 / 45

29) benefit of performance appraisal is:

a) Creating conflicts

b) Identifying training needs

c) Creating conflicts

d) Increasing attrition

30 / 45

30) Which transfer is done on employee’s request?

a) Lateral transfer

b) Employee-initiated transfer

c) Demotion

d) Disciplinary transfer

31 / 45

31) Performance appraisal is important for:

a) Reducing staff

b) Only salary increments

c) Employee development and promotions

d) None

32 / 45

32) Main difference between appraisal and transfer is:

a) Appraisal = evaluates performance, Transfer = shifts role/location

b) Appraisal = punishment, Transfer = reward

c) Both are same

d) Transfer = evaluation, Appraisal = shifting

33 / 45

33) Which of these is a challenge in performance appraisal?

a) Salary increment

b) Job security

c) Promotion opportunities

d) Halo effect bias

34 / 45

34) Which transfer supports employee development and retention?

a) Demotion transfer

b) Disciplinary transfer

c) Punitive transfer

d) Career development transfer

35 / 45

35) Employee transfer means:

a) Permanent termination

b) Changing employee’s job to another organization

c) Moving employee from one position/location to another within same organization

d) Retirement

36 / 45

36) MBO (Management by Objectives) is related to:

a) Training programs

b) Payroll calculation

c) Appraising employees based on goals achieved

d) Planning projects

37 / 45

37) Key objective of transfers is:

a) Optimum utilization of manpower

b) Punish employees only

c) Reduce salaries

d) Fire employees

38 / 45

38) what is performance appraisal?

a) Evaluating employee performance

b) Hiring new employees

c) Promoting employees only

d) Providing salary only

39 / 45

39) Who usually conducts performance appraisals?

a) Competitors

b) Supervisors/managers

c) Government officers

d) Customers

40 / 45

40) Which transfer reduces monotony by changing tasks?

a) Demotion transfer

b) Lateral transfer

c) Promotional transfer

d) Job rotation

41 / 45

41) Which is NOT a type of employee transfer?

a) Promotional transfer

b) Demotion transfer

c) External transfer to competitors

d) Lateral transfer

42 / 45

42) Main purpose of performance appraisal is:

a) Employee evaluation and development

b) Increasing working hours

c) Punishing employees

d) Reducing workforce

43 / 45

43) Which transfer is done to fill critical skill gaps?

a) Skill transfer

b) Emergency transfer

c) Replacement transfer

d) Cross-functional transfer

44 / 45

44) Paired comparison method is:

a) Comparing company to competitors

b) Comparing each employee with another

c) Comparing employees with industry standard

d) None

45 / 45

45) Transfer without promotion is called:

a) Job enrichment

b) Promotional transfer

c) Horizontal or lateral transfer

d) Vertical transfer

Your score is

The average score is 73%

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D7

1 / 44

1) Which KPI measures onboarding success?

a) Market share

b) Salary hike %

c) 90-day retention rate

d) Client churn rate

2 / 44

2) What is pre-boarding?

a) Activities after exit

b) Activities before day one of joining

c) Activities after appraisal

d) Activities during resignation

3 / 44

3) What is the main purpose of employee onboarding?

a) To integrate new employees into the organization

b) To train managers

c) To hire employees

d) To terminate employees

4 / 44

4) A strong onboarding program connects new hires to:

a) Company mission and values

b) Client complaints

c) Competitor’s culture

d) Exit process

5 / 44

5) Which onboarding step helps new hires feel welcome?

a) Payroll deduction

b) Warning letter

c) Exit interview

d) Welcome lunch/ice-breaking activity

6 / 44

6) A buddy in the buddy system is usually:

a) A client

b) The CEO

c) A peer or experienced co-worker

d) A recruiter

7 / 44

7) Which of the following helps in structured onboarding?

a) Checklist and timelines

b) Layoff strategy

c) Payroll slip

d) Exit policy

8 / 44

8) Employee orientation mainly focuses on:

a) Negotiating salary

b) Teaching about company policies and culture

c) Reducing attrition immediately

d) Conducting job interviews

9 / 44

9) Which system assigns a colleague to help a new hire adjust?

a) Internship program

b) Buddy system

c) Mentorship program

d) Appraisal system

10 / 44

10) Which onboarding style is best for global teams?

a) Virtual/remote onboarding tools

b) No onboarding

c) Local buddy system only

d) Exit interview

11 / 44

11) Which of the following is a challenge in onboarding?

a) Office tour

b) Information overload

c) Welcome event

d) Peer introduction

12 / 44

12) Which role does HR play in onboarding?

a) Only issuing termination letters

b) Salary deductions

c) Facilitator and coordinator of process

d) Budget planning

13 / 44

13) . Which is a modern trend in onboarding?

a) Termination meetings

b) Gamified onboarding apps

c) Layoffs

d) Salary deductions

14 / 44

14) The buddy system helps new hires with:

a) Understanding informal culture

b) Resigning faster

c) Salary negotiation

d) Firing process

15 / 44

15) Onboarding failure often leads to:

a) Appraisals

b) Performance awards

c) Early attrition

d) Promotions

16 / 44

16) A good onboarding process can reduce:

a) Market competition

b) Employee leaves

c) Early attrition

d) Appraisal scores

17 / 44

17) What is “continuous onboarding”?

a) Only orientation on first day

b) Annual appraisal

c) Supporting employees beyond day one, throughout career journey

d) Layoff planning

18 / 44

18) The buddy system is especially useful for:

a) First 90 days of joining

b) Annual leave planning

c) Resignation process

d) Retirement stage

19 / 44

19) Which real-world example is correct?

a) Google fires employees in orientation

b) Zappos offers $2000 to quit if not engaged after orientation

c) Infosys pays employees to resign on first day

d) Apple skips orientation

20 / 44

20) Which document is typically shared during onboarding?

a) Performance appraisal form

b) Relieving letter

c) Termination notice

d) Employee handbook

21 / 44

21) What is the link between onboarding and employer branding?

a) Onboarding increases resignations

b) Onboarding reduces appraisal ratings

c) Onboarding avoids payroll issues

d) Positive onboarding improves company image

22 / 44

22) Which HR practice helps reduce new hire anxiety?

a) Exit interview

b) Orientation

c) Disciplinary action

d) payoff

23 / 44

23) The first day of onboarding is usually focused on:

a) Performance appraisal

b) Paperwork and introductions

c) Promotion discussions

d) Exit process

24 / 44

24) Real-world example: Which company uses “Welcome Home” events for onboarding?

a) Apple

b) Tesla

c) airbnb

d) Infosys

25 / 44

25) Final goal of onboarding & orientation is:

a) Early termination

b) Salary deduction

c) High attrition

d) Smooth integration and long-term retention

26 / 44

26) Which of the following is a digital onboarding method?

a) Client meetings

b) Online forms and e-learning modules

c) Annual appraisals

d) Face-to-face exit interview

27 / 44

27) Orientation is usually conducted by:

a) Competitors

b) External vendors only

c) Clients

d) HR team

28 / 44

28) Orientation helps new employees understand:

a) How to quit the job

b) Competitor analysis

c) Client complaints

d) Organizational culture and values

29 / 44

29) Which is a goal of orientation?

a) Firing non-performers

b) Terminating employees

c) Cutting HR costs only

d) Reducing first-day confusion

30 / 44

30) Why do companies invest in buddy systems?

a) To reduce HR workload only

b) To manage salaries

c) To plan exits

d) To reduce attrition and increase engagement

31 / 44

31) What is a sign of successful onboarding?

a) Employees avoid managers

b) Employees feel confident and engaged

c) Employees hide from HR

d) Employees resign quickly

32 / 44

32) Which company is famous for its fun onboarding program "Noogler hats"?

a) Infosys

b) Microsoft

c) Amazon

d) Google

33 / 44

33) Which is an example of real-world onboarding?

a) Google’s Noogler program with colored hats

b) Employee exit at Infosys

c) Annual appraisal at IBM

d) Layoff practice at startups

34 / 44

34) What is the purpose of buddy system beyond support?

a) Managing salary hikes

b) Conducting appraisals

c) Building social connections at work

d) Handling payroll

35 / 44

35) An effective onboarding program improves:

a) Employee conflicts

b) Employee resignation

c) Employee retention

d) Employee turnover

36 / 44

36) Which of the following is NOT part of onboarding activities?

a) Termination letter

b) Explaining job responsibilities

c) Giving company swag/kits

d) Office tour

37 / 44

37) What is an advantage of pre-boarding?

a) Employee can resign earlier

b) Employee skips joining

c) Employee feels prepared on day one

d) Employee avoids appraisal

38 / 44

38) Who benefits most from a buddy system?

a) HR managers only

b) Exiting employees

c) New employees adjusting to culture

d) Senior management only

39 / 44

39) Which is a common onboarding activity?

a) Exit process

b) Budget audit

c) Layoff announcement

d) Welcome kit distribution

40 / 44

40) Which onboarding method encourages engagement?

a) Silent paperwork

b) Storytelling about company journey

c) No introductions

d) Only compliance training

41 / 44

41) What is a risk of ineffective onboarding?

a) Salary increase

b) Promotion

c) High employee turnover

d) Low appraisals

42 / 44

42) Orientation sessions usually include:

a) Policies, culture, compliance

b) Salary hike

c) Exit settlements

d) Customer complaints

43 / 44

43) Which tech is used in digital onboarding?

a) Paper only

b) Fax machines

c) Typewriters

d) AI chatbots for FAQs

44 / 44

44) Which of the following is part of onboarding?

a) Orientation programs

b) Final settlements

c) Layoffs

d) Exit interviews

Your score is

The average score is 75%

Objectives of an HR Internship

Skills You’ll Develop

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