Human Resources (HR)

An HR (Human Resources) Internship is a structured training opportunity for students, fresh graduates, or career switchers to gain hands-on experience in Human Resources management. Interns assist the HR department in areas like recruitment, onboarding, payroll, employee engagement, compliance, and HR operations.

It helps interns understand how HR contributes to employee management, workplace culture, and organizational growth.

Objectives of an HR Internship

Gain exposure to recruitment and talent acquisition.
Understand HR policies, compliance, and labor laws.
Learn about employee engagement, performance management, and payroll.
Develop communication and interpersonal skills.
Get familiar with HR tools (HRMS, ATS, LinkedIn Recruiter, Excel).

Skills You’ll Develop

Recruitment & Screening – shortlisting CVs, scheduling interviews.
Onboarding & Documentation – employee joining formalities.
HR Operations – maintaining records, attendance, leave management.
Payroll Assistance – salary processing basics.
Compliance & Policies – labor laws, HR policies.
Employee Engagement – events, surveys, feedback collection.
Soft Skills – communication, problem-solving, time management.

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D1

1 / 45

1) The HR role in performance management is to:

a) Improve customer loyalty

b) Evaluate and guide employee performance

c) Conduct advertising campaigns

d) Manufacture new machines

2 / 45

2) Which one of the following is a developmental function of HRM?

a) Training and development

b) Payroll processing

c) Recruitment

d) Record maintenance

3 / 45

3) One important objective of HRM is:

a) To improve customer sales

b) To reduce product quality

c) To utilize human resources effectively

d) To increase machine hours

4 / 45

4) Which of these is NOT an HRM role?

a) Strategic partner

b) Employee champion

c) Administrative expert

d) Machine operator

5 / 45

5) A key role of HRM in globalization is:

a) Selling products abroad

b) Designing new machines

c) Importing goods

d) Managing a diverse workforce

6 / 45

6) Which of the following is a function of HRM?

a) Selling goods

b) Marketing products

c) Recruiting staff

d) Designing machines

7 / 45

7) Which function of HRM ensures that the right number of people are available at the right time?

a) Motivation

b) Training

c) Performance Appraisal

d) HR Planning

8 / 45

8) The HRM role of being a “Change Agent” means:

a) Controlling machine cost

b) Selling new products

c) Leading organizational transformation

d) Filing records

9 / 45

9) Which of the following is a strategic objective of HRM?

a) Increase stock prices

b) Align people with organizational goals

c) Reduce taxes

d) Control raw material cost

10 / 45

10) The ultimate aim of HRM is to:

a) Reduce employee welfare

b) Increase machine utilization

c) Focus only on profit

d) Ensure effective use of human talent for organizational goals

11 / 45

11) Compensation management deals with:

a) Employee pay and benefits

b) Training customers

c) Designing products

d) Reducing cost of machines

12 / 45

12) Which of these objectives of HRM focuses on society?

a) Employee career development

b) Productivity growth

c) Employer–employee harmony

d) Legal compliance and social responsibility

13 / 45

13) One of the measurable objectives of HRM is:

a) Cut training

b) Increase employee turnover

c) Reduce employee satisfaction

d) Improve employee productivity

14 / 45

14) Which of the following comes under HRM roles?

a) Product Pricing

b) Market Expansion

c) Employee Welfare

d) Financial Planning

15 / 45

15) Strategic HRM links human resource practices with:

a) Company’s overall business strategy

b) Only payroll functions

c) Product design

d) Machinery

16 / 45

16) The process of hiring the right person for the right job is called:

a) Promotion

b) Retrenchment

c) Development

d) Recruitment

17 / 45

17) Which of the following is an example of an operational HR function?

a) Policy formulation

b) Long-term HR planning

c) Aligning HR with strategy

d) Employee record management

18 / 45

18) The function of “employee relations” is focused on:

a) Employer–employee harmony

b) Product distribution

c) Pricing strategy

d) Machine maintenance

19 / 45

19) The function of performance appraisal is linked to:

a) Evaluating employee work

b) Advertising

c) Marketing strategy

d) Buying new machines

20 / 45

20) One of the primary functions of HRM is:

a) Sales Promotion

b) Recruitment and Selection

c) Production Planning

d) Advertising

21 / 45

21) Succession planning is directly related to:

a) Training customers

b) Preparing future leaders

c) Reducing workforce

d) Hiring temporary staff

22 / 45

22) Job analysis is the process of:

a) Marketing

b) Selling goods

c) Promoting employees

d) Identifying job requirements and skills needed

23 / 45

23) Which of the following is NOT a function of HRM?

a) Employee welfare

b) Recruitment

c) Training employees

d) Selling productsv

24 / 45

24) HRM deals with __________.

a) Materials

b) Machines

c) Land

d) Labor

25 / 45

25) The HRM function that ensures employees are continuously updated with new skills is:

a) Employee Relations

b) Training and Development

c) Grievance Handling

d) Compensation

26 / 45

26) Which HRM function ensures fair pay compared to the industry standard?

a) Employee Relations

b) Training

c) Job Design

d) Compensation Management

27 / 45

27) The role of HRM in an organization is mainly:

a) To handle only salaries

b) To manage people and their performance

c) To increase machine efficiency

d) To produce goods

28 / 45

28) Human Resource Management (HRM) is mainly concerned with:

a) Managing machines

b) Managing money

c) Managing people

d) Managing technology

29 / 45

29) HRM ensures compliance with:

a) Tax laws only

b) Labor laws and employment regulations

c) Sales targets

d) Product design standards

30 / 45

30) An important objective of HRM is employee motivation because:

a) Motivated employees work efficiently

b) It decreases training needs

c) It increases machine productivity

d) It reduces product costv

31 / 45

31) The “soft” approach to HRM emphasizes:

a) Machinery utilization

b) Strict control

c) Reducing staff strength

d) Employee welfare and motivation

32 / 45

32) The administrative role of HR is mainly concerned with:

a) Record keeping and compliance

b) Training suppliers

c) Long-term planning

d) Marketing products

33 / 45

33) Which of the following is NOT an objective of HRM?

a) Employee development

b) Maximizing profit only

c) Employee training

d) Employee satisfaction

34 / 45

34) he main focus of HRM is on

a) Market research

b) Employee management

c) Product development

d) Machinery

35 / 45

35) Which one is a managerial function of HRM?

a) Compensation

b) Organizing workforce

c) Training

d) Recruitment

36 / 45

36) The function of Industrial Relations within HRM deals with:

a) Labor unions and negotiations

b) Advertising

c) Customer grievances

d) Raw materials

37 / 45

37) The function of "providing training and development" belongs to:

a) Finance Department

b) Production Department

c) HR Department

d) IT Department

38 / 45

38) Which of the following is the correct full form of HRM?

a) Human Role Management

b) Human Research Management

c) Human Relations Management

d) Human Resource Management

39 / 45

39) One of the main challenges for HRM in the digital era is:

a) Managing e-HRM and remote workforce

b) Importing technology

c) Payroll only

d) Selling digital products

40 / 45

40) HRM is considered as a __________ function of management.

a) Financial

b) Managerial

c) Operational

d) Strategic

41 / 45

41) Modern HRM differs from traditional Personnel Management mainly because it:

a) Is purely administrative

b) Focuses only on payroll

c) Is strategic and employee-centric

d) Ignores training

42 / 45

42) Who is considered the “Father of Personnel Management”?

a) Peter Drucker

b) Elton Mayo

c) F.W. Taylor

d) Henry Fayol

43 / 45

43) Which of these is a quantitative measure of HR effectiveness?

a) Motivation level

b) Employee satisfaction survey

c) Absenteeism rate

d) Leadership skills

44 / 45

44) The “strategic role” of HRM includes:

a) Advertising products

b) Record keeping

c) Supporting long-term business goals

d) Daily attendance

45 / 45

45) Which model of HRM emphasizes employee commitment as a key factor?

a) Mayo’s Model

b) Taylor’s Model

c) Harvard Model

d) Fayol’s Model

Your score is

The average score is 90%

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D2

1 / 45

1) E-recruitment is also known as:

a) Internal recruitment

b) Online recruitment

c) Manual hiring

d) Outsourcing

2 / 45

2) Outsourcing in recruitment means:

a) Hiring through referrals

b) Hiring vendors to provide recruitment services

c) Conducting internal job posting

d) Promoting existing staff

3 / 45

3) Which of these agencies help in external recruitment?

a) Government employment exchange

b) Employee transfers

c) Internal promotions

d) Job rotation

4 / 45

4) Which of these is an internal source of recruitment?

a) Employee referrals

b) Campus placement

c) Job posting on website

d) Employment exchange

5 / 45

5) Workforce forecasting in recruitment involves:

a) Predicting future manpower needs

b) Reducing workforce size

c) Improving products

d) Increasing machine output

6 / 45

6) The role of HR in recruitment is:

a) To sell services

b) To plan, attract and hire people

c) To manufacture goods

d) To manage machines

7 / 45

7) Realistic Job Preview (RJP) is used to:

a) Provide honest information about job

b) Train candidates

c) Hide weaknesses of job

d) Reduce hiring cost

8 / 45

8) Strategic recruitment aims at:

a) Quick hiring only

b) Reducing salaries

c) Aligning hiring with long-term business goals

d) Hiring temporary workers only

9 / 45

9) Manpower planning is also called:

a) Machine planning

b) Product planning

c) Workforce planning

d) Financial planning

10 / 45

10) The first step in the recruitment process is:

a) Appointment letter

b) Performance appraisal

c) Job analysis

d) Interview

11 / 45

11) Recruitment is different from selection because recruitment is mainly:

a) Training new hires

b) Conducting interviews

c) Rejecting unsuitable candidates

d) Attracting potential candidates

12 / 45

12) Advertisement in newspapers for job openings is an example of:

a) Promotion

b) Transfer

c) External recruitment

d) Internal recruitment

13 / 45

13) The final step in the recruitment process is:

a) Advertisement

b) Selection decision and job offer

c) Job analysis

d) Training

14 / 45

14) Which recruitment source saves time and cost?

a) Employment agencies

b) Job advertisements

c) Campus recruitment

d) Internal recruitment

15 / 45

15) One of the advanced techniques in recruitment is:

a) Internal job posting only

b) Manual paperwork

c) AI-based candidate screening

d) Word of mouth hiring only

16 / 45

16) The main objective of recruitment is:

a) To reduce machines’ downtime

b) To increase sales

c) To increase profits only

d) To fill job vacancies with suitable candidates

17 / 45

17) Internal recruitment refers to:

a) Hiring from outside the company

b) Hiring on contract basis

c) Hiring consultants only

d) Hiring from within the company

18 / 45

18) Which document is prepared before starting recruitment?

a) Pay slip

b) Performance appraisal

c) Job description

d) Offer letter

19 / 45

19) The process of narrowing down applicants from a pool is called:

a) Screening

b) Forecasting

c) Training

d) Recruiting

20 / 45

20) The purpose of workforce planning in recruitment is:

a) To increase marketing campaigns

b) To reduce product cost

c) To expand machines

d) To decide number and type of people needed

21 / 45

21) Which is NOT an objective of recruitment planning?

a) Matching job requirements with candidates

b) Increasing product price

c) Reducing cost of hiring

d) Attracting suitable candidates

22 / 45

22) Which of these is a disadvantage of internal recruitment?

a) Limits fresh talent and new ideas

b) Creates motivation among employees

c) Improves employee loyalty

d) Reduces training cost

23 / 45

23) Talent pipeline in recruitment refers to:

a) A pool of potential candidates for future roles

b) Internal promotions

c) Outsourcing recruitment

d) Employee transfers

24 / 45

24) Which step comes immediately after job analysis?

a) Advertising vacancy

b) Job specification

c) Selection

d) Interviewing

25 / 45

25) Outsourcing in recruitment means:

a) Hiring through referrals

b) Hiring vendors to provide recruitment services

c) Conducting internal job posting

d) Promoting existing staff

26 / 45

26) A key challenge in recruitment is:

a) Finding skilled candidates in a competitive market

b) Expanding marketing area

c) Increasing machine productivity

d) Designing products

27 / 45

27) Which of the following is NOT a step in recruitment planning?

a) Identifying number of vacancies

b) Defining job requirements

c) Shortlisting candidates

d) Planning salary hikes

28 / 45

28) Employer branding helps in recruitment by:

a) Attracting quality candidates

b) Avoiding promotions

c) Reducing machine costs

d) Increasing marketing sales

29 / 45

29) Employee referrals are considered as:

a) Internal source of recruitment

b) None

c) Outsourcing

d) External source of recruitment

30 / 45

30) A realistic recruitment policy ensures:

a) Outsourcing all jobs

b) Unlimited hiring

c) Only hiring friends

d) Hiring the right candidate at the right time

31 / 45

31) Which one is a qualitative aspect of recruitment planning?

a) Number of people hired

b) Cost per hire

c) Candidate’s attitude and motivation

d) Time taken to hire

32 / 45

32) Realistic Job Preview (RJP) is used to:

a) Provide honest information about job

b) Reduce hiring cost

c) Hide weaknesses of job

d) Train candidates

33 / 45

33) Job specification mainly includes:

a) Duties and responsibilities of job

b) Employee’s qualifications and skills required

c) Salary details

d) Company history

34 / 45

34) The ultimate aim of recruitment is to:

a) Reduce employee salaries

b) Increase machine output

c) Fill vacancies with best talent

d) Expand markets

35 / 45

35) Which one comes first in recruitment planning?

a) Selecting candidates

b) Conducting appraisal

c) Identifying manpower needs

d) Giving training

36 / 45

36) Which one of the following is an example of external recruitment?

a) Job rotation

b) Transfer

c) Campus recruitment

d) Promotion

37 / 45

37) Which of the following is NOT a step of recruitment?

a) Selecting candidates

b) Selling products

c) Advertising vacancies

d) Attracting candidates

38 / 45

38) Recruitment metrics are used to:

a) Advertise vacancies

b) Train employees

c) Manage salaries

d) Measure the effectiveness of recruitment

39 / 45

39) The recruitment policy of a company should be aligned with:

a) Product pricing

b) Organizational objectives

c) Market competition

d) Competitor’s policies

40 / 45

40) Which of these is a modern method of recruitment?

a) Employee transfer

b) Newspaper ads

c) E-recruitment (online portals)

d) Job rotation

41 / 45

41) Which is a drawback of external recruitment?

a) Provides diversity

b) Large pool of candidates

c) Brings new ideas

d) Costly and time-consuming

42 / 45

42) Campus recruitment is useful for:

a) Hiring fresh graduates

b) Hiring unskilled workers

c) Transferring staff

d) Promoting senior employees

43 / 45

43) Recruitment is the process of:

a) Advertising products

b) Managing machines

c) Attracting and hiring people for jobs

d) Selecting goods for sale

44 / 45

44) Which of the following is NOT a source of external recruitment?

a) Campus interviews

b) Employment agencies

c) Promotion

d) Job fairs

45 / 45

45) The term “headhunting” in recruitment refers to:

a) Promoting internal staff

b) Hiring trainees

c) Hiring senior professionals from outside

d) Referring friends

Your score is

The average score is 90%

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D3

1 / 45

1) Which sourcing method is most cost-effective for startups?

a) Employee referrals

b) Outsourced agencies

c) International job portals

d) Paid LinkedIn Recruiter

2 / 45

2) ATS filters resumes based on:

a) Salary expectations only

b) Hobbies only

c) Candidate photos

d) Keywords and job criteria

3 / 45

3) Resume screening helps HR to:

a) Conduct training programs

b) Promote existing employees

c) Identify candidates who meet job requirements

d) Hire without interviews

4 / 45

4) LinkedIn allows recruiters to:

a) Manage payroll

b) Conduct machine maintenance

c) Post and promote jobs

d) Sell products only

5 / 45

5) Screening criteria may include:

a) Education, skills, and work experienc

b) Favorite movies

c) Food habits

d) Personal hobbies only

6 / 45

6) Which is a disadvantage of job portals?

a) Easy access to candidates

b) Quick posting

c) Wide reach

d) Too many irrelevant resumes

7 / 45

7) Resume filtering is done to:

a) Prepare payroll

b) Train employees

c) Edit job descriptions

d) Remove irrelevant applications

8 / 45

8) The ultimate goal of sourcing and screening is:

a) Accuracy

b) Promoting existing staff

c) Selecting the most suitable candidates for interviews

d) Increasing job ads only

9 / 45

9) Which of these is NOT a job portal?

a) Indeed

b) Monster

c) YouTube

d) Glassdoor

10 / 45

10) Which LinkedIn feature helps in targeted job ads?

a) LinkedIn Jobs

b) LinkedIn Payroll

c) LinkedIn Chat

d) LinkedIn Stories

11 / 45

11) Which of the following is an online professional networking site?

a) LinkedIn

b) Snapchat

c) Instagram

d) Twitter

12 / 45

12) Which method is best for sourcing niche roles?

a) Employee rotation

b) LinkedIn networking and headhunting

c) Mass job portals only

d) Walk-in interviews

13 / 45

13) The main aim of screening resumes is to:

a) Reject all applicants

b) shortlist the most qualified candidates

c) Promote existing staff

d) Train new hires

14 / 45

14) Which of the following is an internal sourcing method?

a) Job portals

b) Employee referrals

c) LinkedIn ads

d) Employment agencies

15 / 45

15) Predictive analytics in sourcing is used for:

a) Sending payroll slips

b) advertising jobs offline

c) Forecasting which candidates will perform well

d) Shortlisting internal transfers

16 / 45

16) One key benefit of job portals compared to referrals is:

a) More personal recommendations

b) Larger candidate poo

c) Only hiring internal staff

d) Lower competition

17 / 45

17) A Boolean search uses symbols such as:

a) $, %, #

b) Copy, Paste

c) Plus, Minus, Equal

d) AND, OR, NOT

18 / 45

18) Employee referrals are considered as:

a) Resume filtering

b) Screening method

c) External sourcing method

d) Internal sourcing method

19 / 45

19) Resume screening software that uses AI is often called:

a) CRM

b) MIS

c) ATS (Applicant Tracking System)

d) ERP

20 / 45

20) Resume databases of job portals are used for:

a) Advertising services

b) Managing company payroll

c) Storing and retrieving candidate information

d) Organizing meetings

21 / 45

21) Screening in recruitment mainly refers to:

a) Training new employees

b) Filtering and shortlisting suitable candidates

c) Advertising job vacancies

d) Conducting exit interviews

22 / 45

22) Which LinkedIn tool allows recruiters to send messages directly to non-connections

a) Direct Chat

b) Email Sync

c) Job Post

d) InMail

23 / 45

23) The process of ranking resumes based on job fit is called:

a) Job analysis

b) Resume rejection

c) candidate pooling

d) Resume scoring

24 / 45

24) What is the purpose of keyword matching in resume filtering?

a) to train employees

b) To prepare job descriptions

c) To calculate salaries

d) to identify resumes that match job requirements

25 / 45

25) Which platform provides both job posting and candidate networking?

a) Google Drive

b) Dropbox

c) Gmail

d) LinkedIn

26 / 45

26) Which one is an automated screening tool?

a) Internal transfer

b) Job rotation

c) Payroll system

d) ATS

27 / 45

27) A disadvantage of LinkedIn sourcing is:

a) Limited professional networking

b) No access to professionals

c) No job posting option

d) Paid premium features for advanced searches

28 / 45

28) Which metric is used to measure sourcing effectiveness?

a) Source of hire

b) Profit margin

c) Machine downtime

d) Employee turnover

29 / 45

29) One of the biggest advantages of LinkedIn sourcing is:

a) Employee transfer

b) Payroll generation

c) Access to passive candidates

d) Product promotion

30 / 45

30) Which of the following improves candidate quality in sourcing?

a) Random resume collection

b) Strong employer branding

c) Accuracy

d) Hiring without screening

31 / 45

31) Which sourcing method provides direct access to fresh graduates?

a) Payroll data

b) Resume filtering

c) Job fairs and campus recruitment

d) Employee referrals

32 / 45

32) Which advanced screening technique reduces unconscious bias?

a) Blind resume screening

b) Manual shortlisting

c) Job posting

d) Employee referrals

33 / 45

33) One limitation of job portals is:

a) High competition and irrelevant applications

b) Large pool of candidates

c) Faster sourcing

d) Easy access to resumes

34 / 45

34) A recruiter posts a job on LinkedIn and shares it in relevant groups. This is an example of:

a) Job rotation

b) Resume filtering

c) Social sourcing

d) Internal transfer

35 / 45

35) The final step in sourcing and screening is:

a) Sending payroll details

b) Shortlisting for interviews

c) Writing job descriptions

d) Employee transfer

36 / 45

36) LinkedIn Recruiter tool is designed for:

a) Employee training

b) Finding and contacting potential candidates

c) Social media advertising

d) Payroll processing

37 / 45

37) An example of a job portal is:

a) WhatsApp

b) Facebook

c) Naukri.com

d) LinkedIn

38 / 45

38) Which feature of job portals helps recruiters quickly find suitable candidates?

a) Performance reviews

b) Resume database search

c) Salary slip generation

d) Marketing tools

39 / 45

39) Sourcing in recruitment means:

a) Searching for raw materials

b) Sending offer letters

c) Conducting training

d) Attracting and identifying potential job candidates

40 / 45

40) Which of the following is NOT a sourcing technique?

a) LinkedIn search

b) Job portals

c) Campus placement

d) Employee performance appraisal

41 / 45

41) A Boolean search on LinkedIn or job portals is used for:

a) Salary calculation

b) Counting employees

c) Advertising products

d) Filtering resumes using keywords and operators

42 / 45

42) Passive candidates are:

a) Already rejected candidates

b) Actively looking for jobs

c) Not actively looking but open to opportunities

d) Candidates without resumes

43 / 45

43) Job portals are mainly used for:

a) Conducting meetings

b) Buying products

c) Sharing photos

d) Posting job vacancies and sourcing candidates

44 / 45

44) A drawback of resume filtering manually is:

a) Cost-effective

b) Fast and error-free

c) Time-consuming and prone to bias

d) Very accurate

45 / 45

45) Which of the following is a modern sourcing technique?

a) Manual resume collection

b) Newspaper advertisements only

c) Word-of-mouth hiring only

d) AI-powered talent search

Your score is

The average score is 95%

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D4

1 / 45

1) Which of the following helps ensure fairness in interviews?

a) Structured evaluation forms

b) Ignoring scoring

c) Quick judgments

d) Random questioning

2 / 45

2) The main objective of an interview in recruitment is:

a) To assess candidate’s suitability for a job

b) To advertise the company

c) To prepare payroll

d) To entertain candidates

3 / 45

3) The purpose of combining interviews with tests and reference checks is to:

a) Reduce subjectivity and increase accuracy in selection

b) Replace interviews completely

c) Increase cost only

d) Delay hiring

4 / 45

4) Which type of interview is used to evaluate cultural fit in the organization?

a) Panel interview

b) Stress interview

c) Exit interview

d) Cultural fit interview

5 / 45

5) The STAR technique in interviews is used for:

a) Screening resumes

b) Training employees

c) Salary benchmarking

d) Evaluating behavior through Situation, Task, Action, Result

6 / 45

6) Which bias occurs when interviewers compare candidates instead of job standards?

a) Leniency bias

b) Contrast bias

c) Similarity bias

d) Halo effect

7 / 45

7) Selection is different from recruitment because selection involves:

a) Attracting many applicants

b) Advertising jobs

c) Choosing the best-fit candidate

d) Posting vacancies

8 / 45

8) In competency-based interviews, questions are linked to:

a) Candidate’s family details

b) Random interests

c) Specific skills and job competencies

d) Education only

9 / 45

9) A blind interview process means:

a) Interviewers ask no questions

b) Candidate details (like gender, name, background) are hidden to reduce bias

c) Only resumes are checked

d) Candidate closes their eyes

10 / 45

10) A situational interview is different from behavioral because:

a) Situational = only HR round, Behavioral = technical round

b) Situational = future response, Behavioral = past behavior

c) Situational = group, Behavioral = panel

d) Situational = casual talk, Behavioral = serious talk

11 / 45

11) Telephonic interviews are usually conducted for:

a) Final hiring decision

b) Salary payments

c) performance appraisals

d) Initial screening of candidates

12 / 45

12) Which interview technique asks candidates to narrate how they handled real situations?

a) Stress interview

b) Situational interview

c) Behavioral interview

d) Exit interview

13 / 45

13) Technical interviews are mostly used in:

a) Sales promotions

b) HR exit processes

c) IT, engineering, and specialized roles

d) payroll management

14 / 45

14) An exit interview is conducted:

a) Before training programs

b) During promotions

c) At the time of employee resignation

d) When hiring new staff

15 / 45

15) Interview scoring rubrics are useful because:

a) They encourage bias

b) They standardize candidate evaluation

c) They replace interviews fully

d) They increase casual discussions

16 / 45

16) Which of these is a disadvantage of unstructured interviews?

a) Easy to compare candidates

b) Very consistent

c) Highly biased and less reliable

d) Objective evaluation

17 / 45

17) A stress interview may sometimes be criticized because:

a) It helps identify coping skills

b) It tests resilience

c) It may create negative impressions of the company

d) It avoids bias

18 / 45

18) Which of these can cause bias in interviews?

a) Personal judgments of the interviewer

b) Panel discussions

c) Using structured questions

d) Standard evaluation forms

19 / 45

19) Which interview is least structured and more like a casual talk?

a) Group interview

b) Structured interview

c) Panel interview

d) Informal interview

20 / 45

20) Which of the following is a step in the selection process?

a) Background verification

b) Preliminary interview

c) All of the above

d) Resume shortlisting

21 / 45

21) A group interview involves:

a) One interviewer and one candidate

b) Multiple candidates interviewed together

c) Candidate meeting HR only

d) Candidate interviewing the employer

22 / 45

22) A behavioral interview is designed to:

a) Test physical strength

b) Judge fashion style

c) Evaluate hobbies

d) Assess past experiences to predict future behavior

23 / 45

23) Which interview is conducted online using video conferencing?

a) Stress interview

b) Walk-in interview

c) Group interview

d) Virtual interview

24 / 45

24) The ultimate aim of interview and selection techniques is:

a) To reject maximum applicants

b) To hire the best-fit candidate fairly and effectively

c) To promote existing employees

d) To reduce salary costs

25 / 45

25) Which advanced technique helps in evaluating candidates through recorded responses?

a) Video interviews with AI analysis

b) Manual note-taking

c) Exit interviews

d) Telephone calls only

26 / 45

26) A structured interview is characterized by:

a) Informal chatting only

b) No preparation at all

c) Using pre-determined, consistent questions for all candidates

d) Asking different random questions to each candidate

27 / 45

27) The "first impression error" in interviews means:

a) Judging candidate based on initial impression only

b) Using rating sheets

c) Following structured format

d) Evaluating consistently

28 / 45

28) Which of the following is NOT a type of interview?

a) Machine interview

b) Panel interview

c) Stress interview

d) Walk-in interview

29 / 45

29) An interviewer rejecting candidates who are similar to them is showing:

a) Stereotyping bias

b) Contrast bias

c) Similarity bias

d) Central tendency

30 / 45

30) A major limitation of panel interviews is:

a) Reduced bias

b) Multiple perspectives

c) Objectivity

d) Time-consuming and intimidating

31 / 45

31) One major purpose of interview evaluation is:

a) To reduce job vacancies

b) To avoid training

c) To compare candidates fairly

d) To reject all candidates

32 / 45

32) Which interview type checks how candidates would react in future job situations?

a) Exit interview

b) Panel interview

c) Stress interview

d) Hypothetical or situational interview

33 / 45

33) The "halo effect" bias in interviews means:

a) Judging a candidate positively based on one strong quality

b) Ignoring personality

c) Neutral evaluation

d) Judging based on negative traits

34 / 45

34) Which type of interview saves time by assessing many candidates together?

a) Group interview

b) Panel interview

c) Walk-in interviewv

d) Stress interview

35 / 45

35) Which of these is an evaluation tool after interviews?

a) Job advertisement

b) Resume database

c) Payroll register

d) Candidate rating sheet

36 / 45

36) An interviewer focusing only on negative aspects of a candidate is showing:

a) Central tendency

b) Contrast bias

c) Horn effect bias

d) Halo effect bias

37 / 45

37) Which selection test is often used along with interviews?

a) All of the above

b) Aptitude test

c) Psychometric test

d) Technical test

38 / 45

38) Which type of interview focuses on technical knowledge and problem-solving?

a) Group interview

b) Technical interview

c) Stress interview

d) Exit interview

39 / 45

39) Which interview method is most suitable for high-volume hiring?

a) Group interviews

b) Stress interviews

c) Exit interviews

d) Panel interviews

40 / 45

40) Which interview is conducted by multiple interviewers together?

a) Panel interview

b) Group interview

c) Stress interview

d) Telephone interview

41 / 45

41) Which of the following is a method to reduce bias in interviews?

a) Focusing on first impressions

b) Using standardized rating scales

c) Asking personal questions

d) Relying on gut feeling

42 / 45

42) Central tendency bias in interviews happens when:

a) Only high scores are given

b) No ratings are given

c) All candidates are rated average regardless of performance

d) Only low scores are given

43 / 45

43) Which interview type assesses how candidates react under pressure?

a) Stress interview

b) Technical interview

c) Exit interview

d) Panel interview

44 / 45

44) One limitation of interviews as a selection tool is:

a) Evaluating communication skills

b) Possible bias and subjectivity

c) Personal interaction with candidates

d) Flexible questioning

45 / 45

45) One way to minimize interviewer bias is to:

a) Depend only on intuition

b) Avoid evaluation sheets

c) Use multiple interviewers (panel)

d) Ignore job criteria

Your score is

The average score is 93%

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D5

1 / 44

1) Which HR trend focuses on employee well-being and work-life balance?

a) Overworking staff

b) Remote work policies

c) Hiring only locally

d) Ignoring flexible schedules

2 / 44

2) Which industry is most associated with gig work?

a) Ride-sharing and food delivery

b) Government jobs

c) Healthcare

d) Manufacturing

3 / 44

3) Which HR trend allows employees to work partly from home and office?

a) Gig work

b) Moonlighting

c) Hybrid work model

d) Work from home only

4 / 44

4) Gig workers are best described as:

a) Permanent employees

b) Retired employees

c) Contract terminated staff

d) Temporary or freelance workers

5 / 44

5) A common challenge in AI hiring tools is:

a) Algorithmic bias

b) Lack of data analysis

c) Candidates refusing to apply

d) Too much manual work

6 / 44

6) Which law in India deals with prevention of sexual harassment at workplace?

a) Companies Act, 2013

b) Contract Act

c) IT Act, 2000

d) POSH Act, 2013

7 / 44

7) Which factor increases attrition among millennials?

a) Lack of career growth opportunities

b) Flexible work culture

c) Skill development opportunities

d) Work-life balance policies

8 / 44

8) Which technology is used for remote interviews?

a) Video conferencing tools like Zoom and MS Teams

b) Loudspeaker

c) Typewriter

d) Fax machine

9 / 44

9) Which HR trend focuses on using social media for employer branding?

a) Social recruiting

b) Campus recruitment

c) Walk-in interviews

d) Blind hiring

10 / 44

10) What is moonlighting in HR terms?

a) Taking frequent leaves

b) Working overtime at the same company

c) Doing a second job along with a primary one

d) Retiring early

11 / 44

11) Which of the following is an example of unethical hiring practice?

a) Blind hiring

b) Discrimination based on gender or caste

c) Skills-based hiring

d) Equal opportunity hiring

12 / 44

12) Which recruitment method helps reduce bias in selection?

a) Manual shortlisting

b) Nepotism

c) Referrals only

d) Blind hiring

13 / 44

13) Involuntary attrition occurs when:

a) An employee is terminated by employe

b) Employee retires voluntarily

c) An employee resigns

d) Employee switches jobs for promotion

14 / 44

14) Which of the following leads to voluntary attrition?

a) Layoffs by employer

b) Contract ending

c) Employee resigning for better opportunity

d) Retirement

15 / 44

15) Which of the following is a limitation of gig workers for companies?

a) Easy replacement

b) Low flexibility

c) Lack of long-term commitment

d) High loyalty

16 / 44

16) What is one major challenge in recruitment today?

a) Employees refusing promotions

b) Too few candidates using LinkedIn

c) Skill shortage in the market

d) Overstaffing in companies

17 / 44

17) Which HR metric measures the rate at which employees leave a company?

a) Attrition rate

b) Productivity index

c) Retention rate

d) Engagement score

18 / 44

18) Which of the following is an example of gig work?

a) A software engineer working permanently at Infosys

b) A doctor employed at a hospital full-time

c) A teacher at a government school

d) A delivery partner working with Swiggy

19 / 44

19) Which of the following is a retention strategy?

a) Ignoring promotions

b) Delayed salaries

c) Poor work culture

d) Offering career development and mentorship

20 / 44

20) Which generation of employees prefers gig and freelance opportunities more?

a) Silent Generation

b) Baby Boomers

c) gen Z and Millennials

d) None of these

21 / 44

21) Which HR technology trend focuses on analyzing workforce data?

a) Referral hiring

b) People Analytics

c) Manual hiring

d) Face-to-face interviews only

22 / 44

22) Which of these is a modern recruitment trend?

a) Manual job boards

b) Ignoring social media

c) Only campus hiring

d) Social recruiting using platforms like LinkedIn

23 / 44

23) Which recruitment trend focuses on building long-term relationships with potential candidates?

a) Talent pipelining

b) Mass hiring

c) Temporary staffing

d) Random job postings

24 / 44

24) Which of the following is an ethical concern in AI recruitment?

a) Algorithmic discrimination

b) Resume screening

c) Faster shortlisting

d) Improved efficiency

25 / 44

25) Which HR strategy helps reduce attrition?

a) No promotions

b) Ignoring employees

c) Poor career growth

d) Providing training and development opportunities

26 / 44

26) Which of these is NOT a recruitment challenge?

a) Skill gap

b) Engaged employees staying long-term

c) High competition for talent

d) Retention issues

27 / 44

27) What does attrition mean in HR?

a) Employees leaving the company over time

b) Employee engagement activities

c) Hiring new employees

d) Promoting employees

28 / 44

28) What is a key cause of attrition in startups?

a) High salaries

b) Lack of stability and workload pressure

c) Long-term job security

d) Strong training programs

29 / 44

29) Which of the following is a major trend in modern HR recruitment?

a) Hiring based only on gut feeling

b) Ignoring technology

c) Manual resume scanning

d) Data-driven hiring decisions

30 / 44

30) What is the purpose of predictive analytics in recruitment?

a) Forecasting candidate success and attrition

b) Predicting stock market growth

c) Measuring customer satisfaction

d) Deciding company profits

31 / 44

31) Which of the following is a current trend in hiring?

a) Only relying on newspapers for job ads

b) Using Artificial Intelligence (AI) in recruitment

c) Hiring without interviews

d) Ignoring technology in recruitment

32 / 44

32) AI in recruitment is mainly used for:

a) Resume screening and candidate matching

b) Salary negotiation

c) Team building activities

d) Cooking lunch for employees

33 / 44

33) Which of the following is NOT a factor in attrition?

a) Good career progression

b) Work-life imbalance

c) Toxic culture

d) Salary dissatisfaction

34 / 44

34) Which HR practice helps to reduce voluntary attrition?

a) Salary stagnation

b) Career development opportunities

c) Poor leadership

d) Lack of recognition

35 / 44

35) Which of the following is a reason for high attrition?

a) Career growth opportunities

b) Employee training programs

c) Low salary and poor work culture

d) Recognition and rewards

36 / 44

36) Which of the following is a benefit of gig workers?

a) High long-term loyalty

b) High job security

c) Fixed pension benefits

d) Flexibility for both company and worker

37 / 44

37) The use of AI in recruitment helps in:

a) Avoiding interviews

b) Improving efficiency in candidate screening

c) Hiring without process

d) Eliminating human resource teams

38 / 44

38) A challenge in remote onboarding is:

a) Employee relocation

b) Centralized seating

c) High cost of travel

d) Lack of face-to-face interaction

39 / 44

39) Which recruitment method involves hiring candidates already known to current employees?

a) Walk-in interviews

b) Blind hiring

c) Employee referral program

d) Job portals

40 / 44

40) Which HR strategy helps in employee retention?

a) Offering career growth and recognition

b) Ignoring employee feedback

c) Poor pay scale

d) Overburdening employees

41 / 44

41) One of the biggest challenges of remote hiring is:

a) Employee uniforms

b) Free office snacks

c) Centralized seating

d) Time zone differences

42 / 44

42) The use of chatbots in recruitment helps in:

a) Conducting background verification

b) Writing offer letters

c) Deciding final salary

d) Answering candidate queries automatically

43 / 44

43) Which type of workforce is increasing due to the gig economy?

a) Full-time staff

b) Freelancers and contractual staff

c) Unemployed individuals

d) Retired workers

44 / 44

44) Which act in India provides legal recognition of electronic records?

a) Factories Act, 1948

b) POSH Act, 2013

c) Contract Act

d) IT Act, 2000

Your score is

The average score is 91%

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D6

1 / 45

1) Which transfer is done to fill critical skill gaps?

a) Cross-functional transfer

b) Emergency transfer

c) Replacement transfer

d) Skill transfer

2 / 45

2) Which appraisal method reduces rating errors by multiple raters?

a) 360-degree feedback

b) Checklist method

c) MBO

d) Ranking

3 / 45

3) Limitation of MBO appraisal is:

a) Helps setting goals

b) Focuses only on results, ignores behavior

c) Encourages teamwork

d) Increases clarity

4 / 45

4) Which transfer is done on employee’s request?

a) Demotion

b) Lateral transfer

c) Disciplinary transfer

d) Employee-initiated transfer

5 / 45

5) Which is NOT a type of employee transfer?

a) Demotion transfer

b) Lateral transfer

c) External transfer to competitors

d) Promotional transfer

6 / 45

6) Which transfer supports employee development and retention?

a) Disciplinary transfer

b) Demotion transfer

c) Punitive transfer

d) Career development transfer

7 / 45

7) Which of the following is a common method of performance appraisal?

a) SWOT analysis

b) Balance sheet method

c) ROI analysis

d) 360-degree feedback

8 / 45

8) Halo effect in appraisal means:

a) Judging employee by one good trait

b) Evaluating team only

c) Objective evaluation

d) Judging based on multiple skills

9 / 45

9) Self-appraisal means:

a) Manager evaluates employee

b) Peer evaluation

c) Employee evaluates their own performance

d) HR evaluates only

10 / 45

10) . Which of the following is NOT a performance appraisal method?

a) Auditing

b) Graphic rating scale

c) Ranking method

d) Forced distribution

11 / 45

11) Main difference between appraisal and transfer is:

a) Appraisal = punishment, Transfer = reward

b) Transfer = evaluation, Appraisal = shifting

c) Both are same

d) Appraisal = evaluates performance, Transfer = shifts role/location

12 / 45

12) MBO (Management by Objectives) is related to:

a) Training programs

b) Payroll calculation

c) Planning projects

d) Appraising employees based on goals achieved

13 / 45

13) Which appraisal bias is when manager rates everyone “average”?

a) Halo effect

b) Leniency error

c) Central tendency

d) Recency effect

14 / 45

14) Performance appraisal is important for:

a) Only salary increments

b) Employee development and promotions

c) None

d) Reducing staff

15 / 45

15) Which appraisal method records positive/negative employee behaviors?

a) Checklist

b) Ranking

c) Critical incident method

d) Forced distribution

16 / 45

16) Transfers that reduce overstaffing in one department are called:

a) Surplus transfer

b) Replacement transfer

c) Production transfer

d) Punitive transfer

17 / 45

17) Key objective of transfers is:

a) Punish employees only

b) Fire employees

c) Reduce salaries

d) Optimum utilization of manpower

18 / 45

18) Which modern appraisal method uses role-plays, case studies, simulations

a) Critical incident

b) forced choice

c) Assessment center

d) Graphic rating

19 / 45

19) Which transfer provides learning opportunities for employees?

a) Demotion transfer

b) Training transfer

c) Lateral transfer

d) Disciplinary transfer

20 / 45

20) Main purpose of performance appraisal is:

a) Punishing employees

b) Employee evaluation and development

c) Increasing working hours

d) Reducing workforce

21 / 45

21) Which method ranks employees from best to worst?

a) Forced choice method

b) Checklist

c) MBO

d) Ranking method

22 / 45

22) Transfer given as disciplinary action is:

a) Demotion transfer

b) Punitive transfer

c) Job rotation

d) Corrective transfer

23 / 45

23) Transfer to another branch for personal reasons is:

a) Punitive transfer

b) Request transfer

c) emotion transfer

d) Production transfer

24 / 45

24) Transfer policy ensures

a) Transparency and fairness

b) Fewer employees hired

c) None

d) More terminations

25 / 45

25) benefit of performance appraisal is:

a) Increasing attrition

b) Creating conflicts

c) Creating conflicts

d) Identifying training needs

26 / 45

26) Which is an example of modern appraisal method?

a) Ranking

b) Graphic rating scale

c) Checklist

d) Assessment center

27 / 45

27) Which transfer type is for better utilization of skills in another department?

a) Cross-functional transfer

b) Skill transfer

c) Replacement transfer

d) Job rotation

28 / 45

28) Which appraisal method evaluates employee’s contribution to company goals?

a) Balanced Scorecard

b) Ranking method

c) Critical incident

d) Checklist

29 / 45

29) Forced distribution method of appraisal is:

a) Grouping employees into categories like top, average, poor

b) Rating all employees high

c) Self-assessment only

d) Interview-based

30 / 45

30) Which of these is a challenge in performance appraisal?

a) Halo effect bias

b) Promotion opportunities

c) Salary increment

d) Job security

31 / 45

31) Who usually conducts performance appraisals?

a) Supervisors/managers

b) Government officers

c) Competitors

d) Customers

32 / 45

32) Which appraisal method involves peers, subordinates, and managers giving feedback?

a) 360-degree feedback

b) Checklist method

c) Rating scale

d) Paired comparison

33 / 45

33) Employee transfer means:

a) Retirement

b) Permanent termination

c) Moving employee from one position/location to another within same organization

d) Changing employee’s job to another organization

34 / 45

34) Which is a limitation of performance appraisal?

a) Identifying strengths

b) Promotions

c) Bias and subjectivity

d) Employee development

35 / 45

35) Which appraisal error occurs when recent performance overshadows past?

a) Recency effect

b) Central tendency

c) Horn effect

d) Halo effect

36 / 45

36) Paired comparison method is:

a) Comparing each employee with another

b) None

c) Comparing employees with industry standard

d) Comparing company to competitors

37 / 45

37) Who introduced MBO method?

a) Henry Fayol

b) Elton Mayo

c) Peter Drucker

d) Taylor

38 / 45

38) Which performance appraisal method focuses on measurable goals?

a) Forced distribution

b) Critical incident method

c) MBO

d) Checklist method

39 / 45

39) Which transfer helps career growth by moving employee to higher position with responsibilities?

a) Promotional transfer

b) Lateral transfer

c) Demotion

d) Job rotation

40 / 45

40) Transfer without promotion is called:

a) Horizontal or lateral transfer

b) Job enrichment

c) Promotional transfer

d) Vertical transfer

41 / 45

41) what is performance appraisal?

a) Promoting employees only

b) Hiring new employees

c) Evaluating employee performance

d) Providing salary only

42 / 45

42) Which is NOT a modern appraisal technique?

a) 360-degree feedback

b) BARS (Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales)

c) Assessment center

d) Simple ranking

43 / 45

43) Transfer to punish misconduct is called:

a) Lateral transfer

b) Disciplinary transfer

c) Employee-request transfer

d) Promotional transfer

44 / 45

44) Transfer to meet sudden manpower needs is called:

a) Replacement transfer

b) Training transfer

c) Emergency transfer

d) Production transfer

45 / 45

45) Which transfer reduces monotony by changing tasks?

a) Promotional transfer

b) Demotion transfer

c) Job rotation

d) Lateral transfer

Your score is

The average score is 73%

Important Notice:
Once you start the quiz, you will not be able to pause, exit, or restart it. Please ensure you are ready before beginning.

Human Resources D7

1 / 44

1) A strong onboarding program connects new hires to:

a) Competitor’s culture

b) Client complaints

c) Company mission and values

d) Exit process

2 / 44

2) Which system assigns a colleague to help a new hire adjust?

a) Appraisal system

b) Internship program

c) Buddy system

d) Mentorship program

3 / 44

3) The buddy system helps new hires with:

a) Salary negotiation

b) Resigning faster

c) Firing process

d) Understanding informal culture

4 / 44

4) Which role does HR play in onboarding?

a) Salary deductions

b) Only issuing termination letters

c) Facilitator and coordinator of process

d) Budget planning

5 / 44

5) Which is an example of real-world onboarding?

a) Google’s Noogler program with colored hats

b) Layoff practice at startups

c) Employee exit at Infosys

d) Annual appraisal at IBM

6 / 44

6) Which KPI measures onboarding success?

a) 90-day retention rate

b) Market share

c) Salary hike %

d) Client churn rate

7 / 44

7) Which document is typically shared during onboarding?

a) Termination notice

b) Employee handbook

c) Relieving letter

d) Performance appraisal form

8 / 44

8) What is a risk of ineffective onboarding?

a) Salary increase

b) Promotion

c) High employee turnover

d) Low appraisals

9 / 44

9) Which HR practice helps reduce new hire anxiety?

a) Orientation

b) payoff

c) Disciplinary action

d) Exit interview

10 / 44

10) What is pre-boarding?

a) Activities before day one of joining

b) Activities during resignation

c) Activities after appraisal

d) Activities after exit

11 / 44

11) Which of the following is a challenge in onboarding?

a) Welcome event

b) Office tour

c) Information overload

d) Peer introduction

12 / 44

12) What is the main purpose of employee onboarding?

a) To integrate new employees into the organization

b) To train managers

c) To terminate employees

d) To hire employees

13 / 44

13) Which tech is used in digital onboarding?

a) Typewriters

b) Paper only

c) Fax machines

d) AI chatbots for FAQs

14 / 44

14) What is an advantage of pre-boarding?

a) Employee feels prepared on day one

b) Employee can resign earlier

c) Employee avoids appraisal

d) Employee skips joining

15 / 44

15) Which is a common onboarding activity?

a) Budget audit

b) Welcome kit distribution

c) Layoff announcement

d) Exit process

16 / 44

16) Which onboarding style is best for global teams?

a) No onboarding

b) Local buddy system only

c) Virtual/remote onboarding tools

d) Exit interview

17 / 44

17) A buddy in the buddy system is usually:

a) A peer or experienced co-worker

b) The CEO

c) A client

d) A recruiter

18 / 44

18) Which company is famous for its fun onboarding program "Noogler hats"?

a) Microsoft

b) Amazon

c) Google

d) Infosys

19 / 44

19) What is “continuous onboarding”?

a) Only orientation on first day

b) Supporting employees beyond day one, throughout career journey

c) Layoff planning

d) Annual appraisal

20 / 44

20) Onboarding failure often leads to:

a) Performance awards

b) Appraisals

c) Early attrition

d) Promotions

21 / 44

21) Who benefits most from a buddy system?

a) Senior management only

b) New employees adjusting to culture

c) HR managers only

d) Exiting employees

22 / 44

22) Final goal of onboarding & orientation is:

a) Early termination

b) Salary deduction

c) High attrition

d) Smooth integration and long-term retention

23 / 44

23) Which is a goal of orientation?

a) Cutting HR costs only

b) Terminating employees

c) Firing non-performers

d) Reducing first-day confusion

24 / 44

24) What is the purpose of buddy system beyond support?

a) Building social connections at work

b) Managing salary hikes

c) Conducting appraisals

d) Handling payroll

25 / 44

25) What is a sign of successful onboarding?

a) Employees feel confident and engaged

b) Employees hide from HR

c) Employees resign quickly

d) Employees avoid managers

26 / 44

26) Real-world example: Which company uses “Welcome Home” events for onboarding?

a) Infosys

b) Apple

c) airbnb

d) Tesla

27 / 44

27) Which onboarding method encourages engagement?

a) No introductions

b) Storytelling about company journey

c) Silent paperwork

d) Only compliance training

28 / 44

28) Employee orientation mainly focuses on:

a) Conducting job interviews

b) Reducing attrition immediately

c) Teaching about company policies and culture

d) Negotiating salary

29 / 44

29) The first day of onboarding is usually focused on:

a) Paperwork and introductions

b) Performance appraisal

c) Promotion discussions

d) Exit process

30 / 44

30) Which of the following is NOT part of onboarding activities?

a) Termination letter

b) Giving company swag/kits

c) Explaining job responsibilities

d) Office tour

31 / 44

31) Which onboarding step helps new hires feel welcome?

a) Welcome lunch/ice-breaking activity

b) Exit interview

c) Warning letter

d) Payroll deduction

32 / 44

32) An effective onboarding program improves:

a) Employee retention

b) Employee resignation

c) Employee turnover

d) Employee conflicts

33 / 44

33) Which real-world example is correct?

a) Zappos offers $2000 to quit if not engaged after orientation

b) Infosys pays employees to resign on first day

c) Apple skips orientation

d) Google fires employees in orientation

34 / 44

34) What is the link between onboarding and employer branding?

a) Onboarding increases resignations

b) Onboarding avoids payroll issues

c) Positive onboarding improves company image

d) Onboarding reduces appraisal ratings

35 / 44

35) A good onboarding process can reduce:

a) Employee leaves

b) Appraisal scores

c) Market competition

d) Early attrition

36 / 44

36) Orientation sessions usually include:

a) Salary hike

b) Exit settlements

c) Policies, culture, compliance

d) Customer complaints

37 / 44

37) The buddy system is especially useful for:

a) Retirement stage

b) Resignation process

c) First 90 days of joining

d) Annual leave planning

38 / 44

38) Which of the following helps in structured onboarding?

a) Exit policy

b) Checklist and timelines

c) Payroll slip

d) Layoff strategy

39 / 44

39) Which of the following is part of onboarding?

a) Final settlements

b) Orientation programs

c) Exit interviews

d) Layoffs

40 / 44

40) Why do companies invest in buddy systems?

a) To reduce attrition and increase engagement

b) To reduce HR workload only

c) To plan exits

d) To manage salaries

41 / 44

41) . Which is a modern trend in onboarding?

a) Salary deductions

b) Layoffs

c) Gamified onboarding apps

d) Termination meetings

42 / 44

42) Orientation is usually conducted by:

a) HR team

b) Clients

c) External vendors only

d) Competitors

43 / 44

43) Which of the following is a digital onboarding method?

a) Client meetings

b) Online forms and e-learning modules

c) Annual appraisals

d) Face-to-face exit interview

44 / 44

44) Orientation helps new employees understand:

a) Client complaints

b) How to quit the job

c) Organizational culture and values

d) Competitor analysis

Your score is

The average score is 75%

Objectives of an HR Internship

Skills You’ll Develop

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